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? asked in Politics & GovernmentPolitics · 8 years ago

How did the United States become involved in the 1953 Coup d'etat of Iran?

Wasn't the whole issue between Britain and Iran because Iran was trying to nationalize AIOC (Anglo Iranian Oil Company)? What caused the US to help Britain in overthrowing the prime minister? Britain had an obvious motivation. What about America? What was their motivation(s)?

Sources if possible please

4 Answers

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  • 8 years ago
    Favorite Answer

    I'm not totally sure why the US intervened to protect British Petroleum's interests. It might have been that BP had a lot of big investors in the US. Or it might have been part of a bigger strategy for the US to control the whole Middle East (a strategy that continues to this day!)

    It was the first time the US actually got involved in a country to throw out a legitimately elected leader and install their own choice of leader. The first of many times, as it turned out.

    Officially the US has never been able to admit there -was- an overthrow, much less what its reasons were.

    (BTW it had NOTHING to do with Soviet influence. Mossadegh hated socialism and Communism. The threat of communist imperialism was used MANY times by the US as a justification for its own imperialism.)

  • Anonymous
    4 years ago

    The British had oil hobbies specific, however the democratically elected best minister substitute into left wing, and the U. S. did not like that. Plus having Iran under American impression in could function a remarkable deterrent against Arab international places in the region.

  • 8 years ago

    When you form a sentence that includes 'USA' and a country of Middle-East and put a question mark in the end, it's always about oil. Always.

  • Anonymous
    8 years ago

    to keep the Soviets from gaining control..history!

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