Yahoo Answers is shutting down on May 4th, 2021 (Eastern Time) and beginning April 20th, 2021 (Eastern Time) the Yahoo Answers website will be in read-only mode. There will be no changes to other Yahoo properties or services, or your Yahoo account. You can find more information about the Yahoo Answers shutdown and how to download your data on this help page.

?
Lv 5

ALL serious Bible students, please: What is the common thought in Gen. 1:26a and John 1:1?

How many persons are shown in both scriptures?

19 Answers

Relevance
  • David
    Lv 4
    8 years ago
    Favorite Answer

    Jehovah talking to The Word (Jesus).

  • Fuzzy
    Lv 7
    8 years ago

    Actually, to be exact, in Genesis that you mention, more than one is mentioned, however, how many that might turn out to be cannot be said from that scripture though we may interpret it from the rest of the scriptures to be two. From that context alone, we could be wrong - for God could here have spoken to the heavenly hosts in general.

    In John 1:1, two are mentioned, God, and his son, the Logos.

    Do you realize that this Logos was such from his coming to be, even to the angels?!

    That is what that scripture actually teaches.

    Most do not realize that the angels also had to go through the Logos to speak to God.! This surely may explain why perhaps some were not coming to know their Father real well.

    Another detail, when including Proverbs chapter 8 and I John 3:9, we can see that this Logos functioned as God's wife though there is no gender in heaven according to present interpretation. Here the Logos received the holy spirit from God and by it brought forth all other creation, thus as you infer, the account in Genesis was between God and his wife, the Logos.

    Since this gender function is a non-physical property of these beings, we know this Logos as God's son, Jesus Christ, who gave himself as our ransom. How appropriate it is that this one who was our 'mother' came to our rescue and in this way became God's son.

    John said: "No one born of God makes a practice of sinning, for God's seed abides in him, and he cannot keep on sinning because he has been born of God. "

  • 8 years ago

    In Gen 1:26 the "us" and "our" does not refer to God as 3. God is saying us to the ground, the dirt. Not only the image of God, but man "adam" is also made in the image of the ground "adamah." If you know science you know dirt is made up of the same elements as the human body.

    Just looking at the words ADAM comes out of ADAMAH.

    John 1:1 the Word "logos"

    How did God create the universe? The word universe answers it.

    Uni- one. Verse- spoken sentence

    God spoke with WORDS "logos" things into existence. When one is away from you what is more meaningful? A picture or a letter from them? The letter because its their "words" it represent them unlike a picture can. "my word is my bond" its me.

    When it says the Word became flesh (man), God's essence, God Himself became flesh.

    Also the first law of thermodynamics:

    Matter and energy can not be created or destroyed.

    Every particle has been here since the beginning. So when the flesh of Jesus was formed in Mary it was formed by molecules and particles that have been here since the beginning. They were created by God speaking the WORDS.

    So God and the Word aren't separate. They are One. "the Word was God"

  • 8 years ago

    John 1:1 explains who "us" is in Gen 1:26.

  • How do you think about the answers? You can sign in to vote the answer.
  • Andrew
    Lv 5
    8 years ago

    Two separate and individuel beings.

    Highly Intelligent as they were in conversation.

    They had the power to create, to turn energy into matter, and matter into energy.

    No flesh can exist next to God, so they were/are not physical beings.

    To make man in their image and likeness, shows love, wisdom, justice & power.

    All this they done freely, so this shows the quality of a father to a son...

    Wait they are the almighty heavenly father and the only begotten son.

  • jeni
    Lv 7
    8 years ago

    The common thought of Gen.1:26 and John 1:1, from Catholic, the trinity.

    Otherwise the first created son, hears his heavenly Father say what was

    said, as he was there before the world was, he wanted his disciples to be

    with him where he was before his first coming to earth. John 17:1-26.

    They will be with him, Rev.3:12,14, to know his new name.

    The preparation of the word! Gen.1:3 And God said, Let there be light: and

    there was light.

    1:4 And God saw the light, that it was good: and God divided the light from

    the darkness.

    As for Gen.1:1,2, who was with God? Job born year 2293 to die year 2433,

    was age 75 when God spoke to him, Job 38:4-7, all the angels that were

    before men, had been created, way before Adam, Job 2:1-3. They saw

    Gen.1:3-25, all of the preparation days before Adam, and all the time after

    that is given in the bible.

    Gen.1:26 And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness:

    and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the

    air, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing

    that creepeth upon the earth.

    From Gen 1:26, to Gen.5:3, is 130 years, Seth is born year 130. So how

    much time does the book of Genesis cover, or Job, or Exodus, Leviticus,

    Numbers, Deuteronomy, Joshua or Judges, Ruth, 1 & 2 Samuel at David

    of Matt.1:1-17, or 1 & 2 Kings, how many bible books did Solomon have to

    put in the finished temple, 29 years of his life?

    It is established that in the beginning was the word, the word is power,

    Heb.4:12; it is from God. Who was the first being to hear words from God?

    Jesus as we know him was with God before the world was, John 17:1-26;

    Rev.3:14; John 3:16; John 8:28-32; Jesus as we know him was the first to

    be with his God and Father, John 20:17, how many years was Jesus with

    his God and Father before the next bible verse?

    John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and

    the Word was God.

    How long was it from Jesus as the first heavenly created son of God, until

    Jesus sees Adam, the first created earthly son of God, then Jesus comes

    to earth to be the Lord and Savior of the off-springs of the first created

    earthly son of God, Matt.1:1-17, Jesus is of the same family[Abraham son

    #20, year 2008 to 2183, David son #33, years 2959 to 3029, Son #47 at

    Babylon captivity, year 3460 [606 BCE, now at 2012 CE, that was 2618

    years ago that Judah kings end, there will be no king until Jesus at his

    2nd coming], so at 606 BCE, there is 14 generations to Jesus son #61, at

    his first coming], Jesus is the Lord and Savior of the off-springs of Adam,

    1Cor.15:22-28,51-53; God gives all time to Rev.20:1-6, God alone knows

    the day and the hour, that the coming kingdom of Luke 16:16,17, and

    Acts 28:28-31, has its king and those redeemed from earth with him.

    Source(s): Bible. Bible Study.
  • ?
    Lv 5
    8 years ago

    There are several examples in the scriptures of this figure of speech wherein a single noun uses plural form to show greatness and power. The first "Let us..", in Gen 1:26 to show the great power of Eloihim in creating His image, the holy spirit, into Adam first when he was three years old in naming all the animals in Paradise. In creating His image to Eve was when she was 13 years old, and it ended up Satan, a spirit being, talking to her into temptation, instead.

    The second usage, Ex 4:19, "all the men are dead", whereas the subject was pharaoh died already and Yahweh wanted Moses to go back to Egypt for his death sentence from the old pharaoh was gone with the pharaoh's death.

    The third usage, Gen 29:27 "we will give thee", whereas the subject was Laban, the father-in-law of Jacob, in referring to giving of Rachael as wife after another 7 years of free labor for Laban.

    The fourth usage Matt 2:20, "for they are dead" whereas the subject was Herod, who ordered the killing of children two years and under in an effort to eradicate the coming Messiah.

    The fifth one Matt 9:8 "such powere unto men" whereas the subject was Jesus after healing the man with palsy.

    In John 1:1, it is the figure of speech called antanaclasic, the use of one word but that word refers to different meaning. A good example in John 1:10 of the word "world". The last one referring to unbelieving men, the world knew him not. The other world, referring to Gen 1:1, referring to the creation of the earth. The first one, referring to the Word of Yahweh written in the constellations giving testimony from the Messiah's birth in Virgo unto Leo, the milllennium reign and the word of Yahweh in written form, the Bible and the preach Word, from people like me, preaching His Word, by all means.

    Another usage John 4:13, referring to physical water in the word "driinketh" and to the accepted Word by believes in "driinketh".

    John 4:31, usage "meat", physical meat to what we eat and spiritual food, the Word of Yahweh.

    Another Romans 9:6, the word "Israel" , for they are not all Israel, referring to the sons of Abraham, Ismael not an Israelite but part of the promise of as the sands of the sea coming together on Sept 2016 dedication of the Antichrist Temple, a 4000 year prophecy when Abraham was 70. The second one, of Israel, the sons of Jacob where the land Israel was promised.

    So on John 1:1, "word" referring to Eloihim, the only one before the beginning, "word" referring to the Bible, the Word of Yahweh and in foreknowledge, Jesus and those born again, Body of Christ, chosen before the foundation of the world. "word" referring to all creation that came out of Eloihim, the creator, from The archangels and all universe coming out from Eloihim.

    Source(s): 777thSabbath.com September 28, 2015 bloody lunar eclipse, feast of Tabernacle.
  • 8 years ago

    Well for me, it exactly refers to the Son of God Jesus Christ. Moreover for me, the significance of (John 1:1) is not as scholastic achievement portray it, with their scholastic definitions of words, rather it is the unity of purpose of the words "with God" in verses one and two; which for me shows plainly of the Son. There are certainly many verses that tell us plainly that Jesus is the Son, but in this particular case [again for me] it is evident.

  • JohnH
    Lv 7
    8 years ago

    not sure what you mean.

    he created mankind in his image

    and

    The Bible indicates that the Logos is an object partner to God.

    J

  • Anonymous
    8 years ago

    >John 1:1 explains who "us" is in Gen 1:26.

    "I *want* John 1:1 to explain who is "us" in Gen 1:26"

    FTFY.

Still have questions? Get your answers by asking now.