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Prove that the fractional loss in kinetic energy for the ball-pendulum system is given by equation n=1-m/m.?
step by step please!!
2 Answers
- sojsailLv 78 years agoFavorite Answer
What do n and m represent?
Just looking at the equation it seems that
n=1-m/m = 1-1 = 0
- 4 years ago
The kinetic ability is "switched over" right into a ask your self wave that is transmitted for the period of the magnet and into the form keeping the magnet. The ask your self wave then dissipates into warmth interior the form and the encircling air. So i could say Kinetic ability into warmth. i'm uncertain if a ask your self wave is a subset of Kinetic ability or some thing else! Magnets enable the transmission of forces, like an electromagnetic motor as an occasion. Edit: i'm uncertain that the ball could shop rotating in a fastened translational place next to the magnet, whether there became 0 friction, for the reason that this could set up eddy currents interior the ball?!?!?