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Integral of sinx from 0 to pi/2?
My calculator gives me a value of 1. But how is that possible?
The integral of sinx is -cosx, and cos(pi/2) is 0.
Does the integral of sinx have a special property that I am missing?
2 Answers
- PeterLv 58 years agoFavorite Answer
Continue carefully by the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus to evaluate your definite integral:
-(cos(π/2) - cos(0)) =
-(0 - 1) =
-(-1) =
1
as you found.
- ?Lv 44 years ago
?cosx dx / (sinx + a million) enable sinx + a million = t => cosx dx = dt => essential = ?dt / t = ln l t l + c = ln (sinx + a million) + c [be conscious: Modulus sign isn't used as sinx + a million ? 0] Plugging limits 0 to ?/2, = ln [sin(?/2) + a million] - ln1 = ln(2).
