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? asked in Education & ReferenceHomework Help · 8 years ago

F(x)=0 for f(x)=4x-2?

What is the answer? It was a math test question

3 Answers

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  • Tessa Roberts
    8 years ago

    Because you have two f(x) equations, you would substitute the value of one into the other. This means for the f(x)=4x-2, you would place the 0 in for the "f(x)". So now 0=4x-2, and then add 2 to both sides and get 2=4x. Then divide both sides by 4 to get 1/2=x or 0.5=x.

  • Himz
    Lv 4
    8 years ago

    well if f(x)=0 would imply 4x-2=0

    or x=2/4

    or x=1/2

  • Poisson Fish
    Lv 6
    8 years ago

    What's the question? The notation can mean a lot of different things without context.

    Edit:

    Thumb me down, but the F(x) is NOT the same as f(x), even if that's what he/she meant. Sometimes it is the anti-derivative. Sometimes it is the cumulative distribution function while f(x) is the density. It could have meant a lot of things.

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