Does (John 9:41) mean blind people are sinless?

No...It means that Jesus came into the world to open the eyes of the spritually blind.

The Pharisee's believed that their eyes were wide open and they were good enough.....Jesus was referring to the Pharisee's when he said "those who see may become blind.

Those who realize their spiritual blindness would repent and understand their need for Jesus as their savior and would be saved.

This is a metaphor.

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John 9:39-41

Christ came into the world to give sight to those who were spiritually blind. Also, that those who see might be made blind; that those who have a high conceit of their own wisdom, might be sealed up in ignorance. The preaching of the cross was thought to be folly by such as by carnal wisdom knew not God. Nothing fortifies men's corrupt hearts against the convictions of the word, more than the high opinion which others have of them; as if all that gained applause with men, must obtain acceptance with God. Christ silenced them. But the sin of the self-conceited and self-confident remains; they reject the gospel of grace, therefore the guilt of their sin remains unpardoned, and the power of their sin remains unbroken.

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John 9:41

Jesus replied, "If you were blind, you would not be guilty of sin, but now because you claim that you can see, your guilt remains."

He was saying this as a parable. Being blind meaning not knowing the knowledge of sin...but now since they know the right and wrong of there deeds. There held accountable.

No because Jesus was sent to show the glory of the Lord God by making the blind see. do you see?

It means a blind person himself can't sin. There has to be another person.

Bugs are the only things that sin.

You can't be bothered to post the verse, so why should I bother to look it up?