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Lamont
Lamont asked in Science & MathematicsMathematics · 5 years ago

Why does this derivative simplify like so?

Why does f(θ) = 4 sin θ - θ simplify into f'(θ) = 4 cos θ - 1 ?

I get that f' of sin x is cos x, but where does the 1 come from?

3 Answers

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  • ?
    Lv 7
    5 years ago
    Favorite Answer

    1 comes from the differentiation of θ because d(θ)/dθ = 1

  • Lamont
    5 years ago

    Maybe it is because θ is just a variable and the derivative of x is 1?

  • ted s
    Lv 7
    5 years ago

    comment : you appear to have 'symbolism ' problems....domain symbol is Θ , not x...and range symbol is f , not y

    df(Θ) / dx = 0 since f does not have an x in its description

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