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Parthenogenisis/Asexual reproduction/ Humans, Hypothetical Q?
I'm doing research for my novel and it's sci-fi... so the research that I've done suggested that human women could technically asexually reproduce NOW and there is no evidence to the contrary that it hasn't happened before.
but my question is: If I had a baby by parthenogenesis - is it my clone? And if you tested my mom and my 'baby' would my mom be its technical mother?
1 Answer
- JazSincLv 75 years agoFavorite Answer
> so the research that I've done suggested that human women could technically asexually reproduce NOW
No. The problem comes from genomic imprinting. You're missing chromosomes that are marked "it's from dad." Please see the link.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Genomic_imprinting
Stay tuned. People ARE working on this.
> If I had a baby by parthenogenesis - is it my clone
Let's look at two mechanisms:
1. Meiosis fails and you have an ovum that is diploid with a full complement of your cells. Further, somehow it gets stimulated to act like a zygote at some point. Congratulations, you are going to give birth to a clone.
2. Meiosis proceeds. Your ovum is fertilized by a secondary polar body. Your daughter is not a clone. (Note that this mechanism is proposed for certain lizards and turkeys -- and because their sex determination is the other way, this kind of parthenogenesis yields sons.)
https://ferrebeekeeper.wordpress.com/2011/05/16/tu...
==
Technically, you're the mother of any child you give birth to (which is why "surrogate agreements" can become complicated).
