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3 Answers
- 4 years ago
This really depends on what you mean. Pi and e have an exact value in any base system, but no finite representation. Pi and e are irrational, so no finite sequence of rational numbers (which have finite representations in integer bases, sometimes repeating) would equal pi or e (pi and e are also both transcendental, so there is no polynomial with integer to coefficients that has pi or e as a root). Therefore, only in certain transcendental bases does pi have a finite representation, most notably base pi (where pi is 1), but also bases a*pi where a is a rational number.