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Jehovah's Witnesses, what does it mean to you that the Apostles called Jesus "My Lord and my God"?
In John 20:28 ... ὁ κύριός μου καὶ ὁ θεός μου -- "the Lord of me and the God of me."
In verse 29, Jesus blessed this statement of belief and all who would also believe without seeing him in the flesh -- virtually every Christian since Christ's ascension.
14 Answers
- TeeMLv 72 years agoFavorite Answer
What did Jesus mean when he cried out just before he died?
God of me, God of me
After his resurrection, just prior to returning to heaven. What did Jesus mean when he told Mary, the God of me and the God of you are the same God, and that Jesus' relationship with Mary's God is the same as that of Mary.
What does the heavenly glorified Jesus mean when he calls Jehovah 'the God of me' at Revelation 3:2?
John tells us that the very reason he wrote his gospel was to prove what?
(John 20:31) “31 But these have been written down so that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and because of believing, you may have life by means of his name.”
If you get more than this, you have missed the whole reason John wrote his gospel.
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Edit to OP:
Where does God's word say Jesus is God incarnate?
Where does it say Jesus is eternal?
Where does it say Jesus is God in the flesh?
Please notice what the apostles concluded:
Peter:
(1 Peter 1:3) “3 Praised be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, for according to his great mercy he gave us a new birth to a living hope through the resurrection of Jesus Christ from the dead,”
Paul:
(Ephesians 1:3) “3 Praised be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, for he has blessed us with every spiritual blessing in the heavenly places in union with Christ, . . . 17 that the God of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Father of glory, may give you a spirit of wisdom and of revelation in the accurate knowledge of him.”
John:
(Revelation 1:1, 6) “1 A revelation by Jesus Christ, which God gave him,. . . 6 and he made us to be a kingdom, priests to his God and Father”
What did the heavenly glorified Jesus teach?
(Revelation 3:2) “2 Become watchful, and strengthen the things remaining that were ready to die, for I have not found your works fully performed before my God.”
(John 17:3) “3 This means everlasting life, their coming to know you, the only true God, and the one whom you sent, Jesus Christ.”
I find it interesting that Jesus and his apostles didn't understand God to be a trinity.
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- Anonymous2 years ago
Watching the mental gymnastics of the JWs is amusing.
- ΤιμοθέῳLv 52 years ago
Word for word from the Greek it means "the Lord of me and the God of me!" Thomas has Jesus as his God, Scripture has prevailed over the whims of men!
- DIGIMANLv 72 years ago
NO HUMAN HAS SEEN GOD JEHOVAH
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Certainly Jesus wouldn't mean, "you believe I am God because you can see me." Instead, this is proof that Jesus, Thomas, John, and the other disciples did not believe Jesus was equally God with the Father! How? Because John himself (long after Jesus had been resurrected and seen by the Apostles) has made it manifestly clear that "no one [no human] has ever SEEN God" - 1 John 4:12, RSV. (See the SF study; also OMN 3-5.)
"For the NT God is utterly invisible (Jn. 6:46; 1 Tim. 1:17; 6:16; Col. 1:15). 'God does not become visible; He is revealed,' ... yet the resurrection narratives especially stress that the risen Christ is visible." - The New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology, p. 518, Vol. 3, Zondervan, 1986.
Therefore, since no man has ever directly seen God (who is the Father only - John 5:37, 6:46; 17:1, 3) but only indirectly through representations such as visions, dreams, etc., Jesus is saying: "Believe I have been resurrected and that I am obviously not God because you see me directly (and even touch me so you can be sure I'm not merely a vision or indirect representation)."
Source(s): THE NON-TRINITY BIBLE http://defendingthenwt.blogspot.com/2010/11/john-2... - crosseyedLv 62 years ago
hi there
it means they have to go to a watchtower publication to learn to approved reasoning they must perform upon the scripture to make it conform to watchtower doctrine, then believe the reasoning instead of the scripture.
notice that you cannot simply believe what that scripture says and remain a jw.
interestingly, the watchtower has used several contradictory arguments in their desperation to conform the bible to their doctrines. these include -
- thomas didn't mean god.
- thomas did mean god, but was no longer talking to jesus
- thomas was just exclaiming "oh my god!"
- thomas was showing appreciation to god for keeping his promises
but the thing is, thomas did mean god and he was talking to jesus.
so not all of these watchtower arguments can be true. he either meant god or he didn't - not both. he was talking to jesus or he wasn't - not both at the same time.
but it is possible that all the watchtower arguments can be false. this appears to be the case. the only valid conclusion w can draw from all these shenanigans is that the watchtower has a vested interest in getting people to believe them instead of the scripture.
but christians should always believe god. easy choice.
edit
interestingly, jws make a big issue over john 1:1 not having a definite article, which is why they "translate" it "a god". but here at john 20:28 there is the definite article - jesus is THE god.
notice the commonly used tactic of inconsistency used by jws. they cannot use their own arguments about john 1:1 and apply it consistently to john 20:28, but instead have a bunch of reasonings to avoid being consistent. for if they are consistent then they are forced to admit jesus is god, and they appear willing to go to any lengths to avoid that conclusion.
- ?Lv 42 years ago
Although Jesus never claimed to be God, as Jehovah’s appointed ruler he is identified in Isaiah’s prophecy by the terms “Mighty God” and “Prince of Peace.” (Isaiah 9:6) Why, then, did Thomas exclaim when seeing the resurrected Jesus, ���My Lord and my God “? As already noted, Jesus is a god in the sense of being divine, but he is not the Father. Jesus had just told Mary Magdalene: “I am ascending to my Father and your Father and to MY GOD AND YOUR GOD.” Remember, too, why John wrote his Gospel. Three verses after the account about Thomas, John explained that he wrote so that people “may believe that JESUS IS THE CHRIST THE SON OF GOD”- not that he is God.”
Source(s): JW,org - Anonymous2 years ago
Thomas's statement to seeing Jesus and seeing the holes in his hands and the holes in his side and saying oh my Lord oh my God is no different then today when you see something that's greatly surprising and say oh my God no difference whatsoever.
- BrianLv 52 years ago
None of the apostles called Jesus "My Lord and my God"?
Thomas reacted with appreciation upon realizing that his God kept his promise with the messiah and his resurrection. Is sounded to me that Thomas has some doubts about Jesus and seeing the resurrected Jesus with his own eyes showed him those doubts were unfounded.
- mjefferson96Lv 52 years ago
It means that Jesus is their teacher / leader whom they obey, and that he is God / one with the father in heaven.
- Anonymous2 years ago
God doesn’t exist so a non existent god can’t be your lord.