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? asked in Society & CultureCultures & GroupsLesbian, Gay, Bisexual, and Transgender · 2 years ago

Why is it that feminine/female passing transwomen are proportionately more likely to be attracted to men than the less female passing ones?

Update:

Why are you guys pretending to be oblivious. It's common knowledge the more masculine/less female passing transgenders are less likely to identify as straight (attracted exclusively to men) than the more feminine female passing ones. I'm simply asking why this is?

3 Answers

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  • Anonymous
    2 years ago

    I have no f#cking idea. Where did you get that statistic and what do you imagine the answer is? Obviously you have some idea in mind but I'm clueless what it is.

  • Sasha Whitefur
    Lv 7
    2 years ago

    Where did you get the evidence, for your false dichotomy.

  • Mx_intersex_folx
    Lv 7
    2 years ago

    Because they don't. Where do you get your facts from?

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