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? asked in Society & CultureLanguages · 6 months ago

I am Japanese and would like to know the subtle difference in English between the next two .?

1. I would have no interest in it.

2. I wouldn't have interest in it.

6 Answers

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  • paul c
    Lv 7
    6 months ago
    Favorite Answer

    I am an English speaking American, and the two examples have the same meaning when writing a message . But when speaking the word "wouldn't" isn't strong as the word "No"

     # 1. "I would have no interest in it."  Is a clearer, because it has the words, "NO interest"

    #2 uses the CONTRACTION "wouldn't", which means "would not" and might be a little less direct or a little casual compared to  using "NO"

     

  • Anonymous
    2 weeks ago

    I have no interest in it.

  • 6 months ago

    The second is not quite natural: we would say, "I wouldn't have any interest in it".

    A is a little more formal, therefore a little more emphatic. But the meaning is the same.

  • Anonymous
    6 months ago

    The first form is reasonable English. The second form is unlikely to be heard from a native speaker of British English.

    For me, the use of the second form would say 'Non-native user of English'.  But if it was "I wouldn't have any interest in it", that form is native, and possibly more often used than 1. 

    For me in southern Britain there would be no difference in intention between 1. , and 2 with my addition of 'any'.

    Await answers from Americans etc.

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  • Anonymous
    6 months ago

    1.  I would have no interest in it. [Means the talker is uninterested in the subject.]

    2. I wouldn't have interest in it. [Means the talker would never become interested.]

  • Anonymous
    6 months ago

    No difference, just a choice of wording.

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