Warren

The question is related to age since most people understand from the ancients what they believed the sign from God was that determined what a young woman was, in today's society they are referred to as preteens from the age of 9 to 13, not sure why 13 is included though, at what age does a child get offended when you refer to them as a child

please don't respond with saying they all mean the same thing when it's obvious they don't

If the law at that time required being a virgin to both man and women and fornication meant  having sex before you get married and the superstition of proving a woman's virginity was accepted as a test to prove a woman's virginity then how did they prove the man's virginity? unless it wasn't required by law and men thought they could have sex before they got married, WHOM did they have sex with?

If your answer is Yes then you just sent ALL slaves ( in that time ) to HELL because in that time slaves were NOT permitted to marry by LAW, however what Jesus said about this applied to ALL men everywhere for ALL times, the use of LAW is only smart if you own land, wife, children, possessions etc... but what about the slaves in that time, they owned NOTHING so what possible reason would there have been for them to have been married by LAW. I think you need to rethink your definition of what fornication is from Jesus mind and not your dictionary ( the wisdom of this world ), I think you need to figure out how to include the slave ( in their times ) into the equation of whom not to be the cause to separate=divide=come between, since divorce ( law ) was not a option for them or you simply just believe in slavery, who is it that God has joined together? what is God's purpose in this? Why did He make them male and female in the beginning? who is the ONE that the TWO become after joining together, to you What is God? to me God is LOVE, to me the ONE is a CHILD made by the TWO made out of LOVE and NOT adultery, fornication, rape, or anything else known to be evil based on knowledgeable people's understanding and not on spiritual puffed up minds that are based on assumptions that the majority are right when it comes to LAW, to me fornication is sexual unfaithfulness of the unmarried which includes ALL whom are not married by LAW since it's obvious by LAW what Adultery is.

I am not asking whomsoever SAYS I now pronounce you man and wife makes you husband and wife, I am only asking what is it that makes a man and a woman a husband and wife to God

She shall be called woman=female

because she came out of man=male

( which is a gender) because no woman gives birth to a man unless your talking about gender, man=male, female=woman, the subject is not a man out of a man even though that would also be a true statement but unnatural and confusing and would encourage males trying to reproduce with another male when referring to gender, so it's not even to be considered as part of the question since that doesn't happen between a man and a man, we know now that the gender comes out of the man and gender is what women give birth to, no woman has ever given birth to a man except by gender and the use of this word man and woman, male or female must be considered even though it wasn't used by the translators, true or false?

the question had to be shortened to fit the allowed space but my point is the same unless someone can explain to me for reasons I already know from people using that scripture to prevent them from believing Jesus is God in the flesh, there is no rational christian  that would confess Jesus to be the son of or a son of man or a mans son, especially the ones He has revealed Himself to, the translation MUST be wrong and either the word son or man was translated wrong or the original word meant more than the translators included, it's already apparent many of the original words said more than what was translated and that can be easily understood because of all the different variations of the word man and woman, husband and wife and the translators didn't have a clue what the word meant other than it applied to man and woman, husband and wife, I would also like to know if anyone other than myself is having their answers deleted by yahoo   

The wisdom of this world is where people get a understanding of a word they read in the bible that they don't know it's meaning, most ALL do it and trying to deny it will only prove your ignorance, don't get me wrong because I myself do it but I only do it for a understanding that's concerning the things of this WORLD, I never do it ( now ) for a understanding of a word I read in the bible that I don't know it's meaning simply because I have found this wisdom of this world is filled with half truths or no truth at all when it comes to discerning the things of God, I have also found that it even denies a belief that is the cornerstone of all Christianity, it's not in all of them but the most popular one in America, I am speaking of a dictionary, it's the Merriam - Webster dictionary and I asked them WHO is Jesus Christ and the definition came back to indicate He was only a Jewish religious teacher that Evangelists say is the is the basis of the Christian message of salvation, excuse me, what Evangelist is defining Jesus Christ in this manner when Peter defined who He was, He is the Son of God, this dictionary is only telling people what Jesus did and NOT who He was or IS, how many other dictionaries are doing this and denying Jesus is God that appeared in human form, this is the spirit of anti-christ  and you better NOT trust anything you read in it for a understanding of God's words, this is the most important phrase but there are many words defined in the dictionary wrong.  

if the bible permits a christian to divorce a unbeliever then wouldn't it be wiser to marry one since this word unbeliever can mean anyone that doesn't agree with your religious beliefs. Doesn't this belief also encourage someone tired of their marriage a way to justify divorcing their husband or wife as long as they seek out a christian to marry?