Ninja Penguin

I have a family member who falls asleep every time he sits down. He's not tired; his body just shuts down if he stays in one spot for too long. Because of this he's not allowed to drive any more. Can anyone help me out as to what this condition is called?

When people make the erroneous claim that "there is absolutely no evidence that 'Jesus' ever existed," do they just completely ignore the Bible as evidence, Christianity as evidence, the various historical documents as evidence, and so on? Why do people say that there is no evidence for Jesus when there so obviously is? In all intellectual honesty, how can people say that?

My wife and I are pregnant with our first child. We have never had any experience being pregnant before so this is all new to us. We are six weeks along and my wife goes in for her first doctor's visit in June (we just moved and this was the soonest we could get). Anyway, she hasn't been spotting or anything, but she's been throwing up the last few weeks and this week, she feels a lot better, still queasy, but not nearly as intense. Also, Sunday she had pretty bad "stomach issues" (I'm sure she'll love me telling the world that) and there MIGHT have been some blood (she's not sure and she hasn't had any since then.). Anyway, I just wanted to know how a person can tell if they've had a miscarriage or not. I've been pretty worried about this. Is this something I should be worried about or is this normal?

Is it illegal to drink alcohol before you turn 21 or is it just illegal to buy it?

For what it's worth: I'm 30 and don't drink. It just came up in a recent discussion and I was curious.

Second Nephi 1:8 says that "And behold, it is wisdom that this land should be kept as yet from the knowledge of other nations; for behold many nations would over-run the land, that there would be no place for an inheritance."

The implication of this verse (as confirmed by your prophet and seer, Joseph Smith, and several other early Mormon presidents, apostles, prophets in the Journal of Discourses) is that there were no people or people groups on either American continent when Lehi's family supposedly arrived here. So, my question is this: forgetting the hundreds of different people groups who were already in the Americas at the time Lehi's family supposedly arrived, why would God say that He had kept this land (both continents or Mesoamerica, I'll let you choose) from the knowledge of other nations when, at least, the Jeredites were supposedly there before them?

I've heard the party lines from FAIR and FARMS, but I want to hear how you reconcile them?

For those of you who are unfamiliar with these things, (Book of Mormon) Jacob 2:24 says that polygamy is an abomination to God. In D&C 132, Joseph Smith states that God revealed to him a "new and everlasting covenant" which was the commandment of "plural marriages" and that those who did participate in it would be exalted to godhood in the celestial kingdom and those who did not would be forever damned (this doctrine was strongly taught by Mormon prophets and apostles such as Smith, Young, Pratt, Kimball, etc. (See Journal of Discourses)). In (The Holy Bible) Matthew 19:4-6, Jesus states that, from the beginning, marriage was to be between one man and one woman and that God would join them together; anything else was not a part of God's plan for marriage.

Thank you.

(Please understand that this is a respectful question because I really am trying to understand the reasoning behind all of this. I do not mean to offend anyone with this question and, if I did, I apologize).

For those who don't know, the limited geography theory (LGT) is the notion that, instead of the events in the Book of Mormon happening all over the North and South American continents, they only happened in a small 500-mile area within Central America. This is a fairly common theory among Mormon anthropologists today (like John Sorenson) due to the evidence that suggests the events in the Book of Mormon couldn't have happened "all over" both continents as the early LDS leaders taught (like Joseph Smith, Brigham Young, Orson Pratt, etc).

So, I'm just curious: what do you think of it? Does this theory hold any water?

Providing your sources would be very much appreciated.

This questions is for Mormons and I ask it as respectfully as I can.

Galatians 1:6-9 says "I marvel that you are turning away so soon from Him who called you in the grace of Christ, to a different gospel, which is not another; but there are some who trouble you and want to pervert the gospel of Christ. But even if we or an angel from heaven, preach any other gospel to you than what we have preached to you,let him be accursed. As we have said before, so now I say again, if anyone preaches any other gospel to you than what you have received, let him be accursed."

When you, as a Mormon, read passages like Galatians 1:6-9 and then the account of the First Vision of Joseph Smith (History of the Church, vol 1, ch 1-5), how do you reconcile this?

Please understand that I do not mean any disrespect when I ask this question; I just want to know how you answer this question.

I know that the canonized Article of Faith #8 states that Mormons believe that the Bible is the word of God "as far as it has been translated correctly." And, I know that Joseph Smith said that God commissioned him to correctly "translate" the Bible so that the world would have it (Doctrines and Covenants 45:60-61). And, I know that Smith said that he "completed the review and translation of the New Testament" (History of the Church, vol 1, pgs 324 and 368). And, I know that Smith did not revise this passage in any way (Galatians 1:6-9, JST). So, again, I respectfully ask: how do you reconcile this?

Thank you for your consideration of these things. God bless.

My wife and I aren't planning on getting an abortion. It is more academic than anything. Thanks.

The Book of Mormon speaks of a Moroni who was the last survivor of the massacre at the hill Cumorah. The Book of Mormon speaks of Moroni being righteous and following all of the Mormon teachings. Then, why did he appear to Joseph Smith Jr in the first vision as an angel? Shouldn't he have been a celestial god? I mean no offense to anyone and I'm trying to ask this respectfully. I'm only asking because I don't get it.

If I got a tan, would that be proof of evolution? I mean, if I were pasty white and then I turned reddish or brownish, wouldn't that mean my body had evolved in some way?

When an atheist asks a question or makes a comment that is clearly meant to be insulting and disrespectful (ie, "Why was Jesus such a pu$$y?") and Christians are obviously upset, why is the usual response of the Christian something akin to "God still loves you" and moves on?

Follow up question: When a Christian asks a question or makes a comment along the lines of "God loves you" that is clearly meant to be respectful and encouraging and atheists are obviously upset by it (as proved by their comments), why is the usual response of the atheist something akin to a big middle-finger followed by mocking and ridicule?

Christians will appeal to God and the Bible (God's inspired word) as their source of how to determine what is right and/or wrong. What do atheists appeal to in order to determine what is right and/or wrong?