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TJ Can't Lose

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  • If Hebrews 1 is used to prove Jesus cannot be the archangel, then...?

    should Ephesians 1 be used prove that Jesus has no power or name? If being exalted over *all* angels completely excludes him from that group, would not being exalted over *all* power, authority, names, etc, completely exclude him from those groups as well? Why or why not?

    Hebrews 1:4, "So [the Son] became as much superior to the angels as the name he has inherited is superior to theirs."

    Ephesians 1:20-21, "[God] raised Christ from the dead and seated him at his right hand in the heavenly realms, far above all rule and authority, power and dominion, and every name that is invoked."

    Respectful answers please.

    15 AnswersReligion & Spirituality1 decade ago

  • Is Jesus' words at Mark 10:18 a confirmation or an objection?

    Mark 10:17-18 (NIV): "As Jesus started on his way, a man ran up to him and fell on his knees before him. 'Good teacher,' he asked, 'what must I do to inherit eternal life?' 'Why do you call me good?' Jesus answered. 'No one is good—except God alone.'"

    Is Jesus affirming the man's title for himself and thus declaring himself God, or is he correcting the man saying that it should be applied, not to himself, but to God alone?

    If possible, please cite similar such confirmations or objections using this type of questioning, "Why do you..."

    7 AnswersReligion & Spirituality1 decade ago