Bouan Philippe

Romans 13:1-2 Let every person be subject to the governing authorities; for there is no authority except from God, and those authorities that exist have been instituted by God. Therefore whoever resists authority resists what God has appointed,

The above Scripture is often misconstrued and misinterpreted by Bible scholars who have assumed that this particular passage is an "absolute decree" by the Almighty.

However, verse 1 is badly worded, because it claims that "there is no authority except from God", which means that "God is the source of every human authority".

But elsewhere, there are clearly exceptions to the rule, which means that this statement cannot be "absolute".

Such as Pharaoh's refusal to free the OT Israelites from their bondage, which clearly contradicts the divine will.

Consequently, Romans 13:1 cannot be an "absolute decree" at all, because elsewhere in the Bible such examples have clearly served to demonstrate that "God cannot be the source of every human authority".

True or false?

Romans 13:1-2 Let every person be subject to the governing authorities; for there is no authority except from God, and those authorities that exist have been instituted by God. Therefore whoever resists authority resists what God has appointed,

The above Scripture is often misconstrued and misinterpreted by Bible scholars who have assumed that this particular passage is an "absolute decree" by the Almighty.

However, verse 1 is badly worded, because it claims that "there is no authority except from God", which means that "God is the source of every human authority".

But elsewhere, there are clearly exceptions to the rule, which means that this statement cannot be "absolute".

Such as Pharaoh's refusal to free the OT Israelites from their bondage, which clearly contradicts the divine will.

Consequently, Romans 13:1 cannot be an "absolute decree" at all, because elsewhere in the Bible such examples have clearly served to demonstrate that "God cannot be the source of every human authority".

True or false?

Romans 13:1-2 Let every person be subject to the governing authorities; for there is no authority except from God, and those authorities that exist have been instituted by God. Therefore whoever resists authority resists what God has appointed,

The above Scripture is often misconstrued and misinterpreted by Bible scholars who have assumed that this particular passage is an "absolute decree" by the Almighty.

However, verse 1 is badly worded, because it claims that "there is no authority except from God", which means that "God is the source of every human authority".

But elsewhere, there are clearly exceptions to the rule, which means that this statement cannot be "absolute".

Such as Pharaoh's refusal to free the OT Israelites from their bondage, which clearly contradicts the divine will.

Consequently, Romans 13:1 cannot be an "absolute decree" at all, because elsewhere in the Bible such examples have clearly served to demonstrate that "God cannot be the source of every human authority".

True or false?

By definition, Romans 9:22 is only concerned about the countries who will be destroyed during the Second Coming of Christ, and therefore, it is completely false to suggest it is concerned about "every generation"in the past, present & future.

Because the "vessels of destruction" is only concerned about the countries that God will destroy during the Great Tribulation, which is the same generation as the Second Coming of Christ (Daniel 24:1, 6, Romans 9:22).

Ultimately, Romans 9:22 is only concerned about the generation who are destroyed by God during the Great Tribulation, which will happen during the Second Coming of Christ.

However, Romans 9:22 has no relevance to other generations who are not contemporary to the Second Coming of Christ.

Consequently, Romans 9:22 is only concerned about the countries who are destroyed by God during the Great Tribulation, which is the same generation as the Second Coming of Christ.

True or false?

Both the US and UK befits the general description of the "vessels of destruction" in Romans 9:22.

Therefore, it is Not adding to God's word at all (Revelation 22:18) by using the "general equation" to derive a more specific example of the "general formula" in Romans 9:22.

For such a pretentious 'argument' is clearly a Lie.

True or false?

Matthew 25:41 Then he will say to those at his left hand, “You that are accursed, depart from me into the eternal fire prepared for the devil and his angels;"

Matthew 25:43 For I was a stranger and you did not welcome me,

The above Scripture (verse 43) says that Jesus will be rejected as a "stranger" (or outsider), which means he is rejected on the grounds of his race or skin colour.

Ultimately, the question of race or skin colour is still a major theme in the new covenant, because it is specifically mentioned within the context of the Judgment seat of Christ in Matthew 25:31, 41, 43.

Therefore, it is completely false to suggest that the New Testament writers have made no mention about race or skin colour.

True or false?

Matthew 25:41 Then he will say to those at his left hand, “You that are accursed, depart from me into the eternal fire prepared for the devil and his angels;"

Matthew 25:43 For I was a stranger and you did not welcome me,

The above Scripture (verse 43) says that Jesus will be rejected as a "stranger" (or outsider), which means he is rejected on the grounds of his race or skin colour.

Ultimately, the question of race or skin colour is still a major theme in the new covenant, because it is specifically mentioned within the context of the Judgment seat of Christ in Matthew 25:31, 41, 43.

Therefore, it is completely false to suggest that the New Testament writers have made no mention about race or skin colour.

True or false?

Physical superiority does not imply superiority in an Ontological sense.

Because the physical body and spiritual body are clearly different (1 Corinthians 15:44).

Therefore, you can be "superior" in one sense, but "inferior" in another sense.

True or false?

To avoid a heavier penalty such as a heavy fine and/or imprisonment a Defendant has the option to reach an out of court settlement with the plaintiff, which is effectively an admission of liability by the Defendant.

True or false?

The Second Coming of Christ will not be a time of peace due to the War of Armageddon and the strategic scale genocide caused by the Great Tribulation in Isaiah 24:1, 6 and Jeremiah 25:33.

But what are you going to do about it?

Because the State cannot punish nor freeze the assets of foreign nationals who reside in foreign countries outside their immediate jurisdiction.

So what are you going to do about it?

Armageddon is rooted in racial conflict, violence and GENOCIDE. Jeremiah 25:33

For it is necessary to give the enemy a taste of their own medicine, but the divine retribution will be disproportionate to defeat the enemy.

For those who sow the seeds of racial conflict, violence and genocide will be met by racial conflict, violence and GENOCIDE.

True or false?

For it is necessary to give the enemy a taste of their own medicine, but your response must be disproportionate to defeat the enemy.

True or false?

Toleration is a matter of expedience, but not a political ideal as such.

Expedience is necessary, because humans always have limited powers.

However, God cannot be constrained by such expedient measures, since he has more power than any human.

Rather than political tolerance God will exterminate people, groups and ideologies who disagree with Him.

But what are you going to do about it?

This means that your reaction must be disproportionate to defeat the enemy, because "disproportionate retaliation" is the way that wars are fought and won (by definition).

For it is necessary to give the enemy a taste of their own medicine, but your response must be disproportionate to defeat the enemy.

Consequently, the enemy must be butchered and slaughtered and exterminated from off the face of the earth.

True or false?

Do you become Vengeful if a Foreign State has propositioned a plan to make you into a billionaire, because your own plan is far more prestigious and respectable?

Foreign Intelligence agencies are highly selective in terms of their Intelligence gathering capabilities, because they are completely focused on "any subjective information at all" that allegedly supports their agenda, but wilfully ignore other relevant information which contradicts the Foreign government.

Such information is highly relevant, which is bound to make their espionage attempts FAIL.

Such relevant information is a highly effective tactic of counter espionage by the host country, or by other foreign nations.

True or false?