♥Blessed♥ Ps118:8 Rom3:4 Act5:29

....mean that they FORMALLY ACCEPT THE POSSIBILITY that there will NOT be millions of the people that were alive in 1919 to survive Armageddon?

... that millions of people who were living in 1918 will never die?

Or does their modified belief on the meaning of "generation" make the previous teaching invalid?

Does the Catholic church teach that "ghosts" are actually evil spirits impersonating deceased humans, or do they teach that the spirits of dead people can really come back to "haunt" or visit living people?

"And fear not them which kill the body, but are not able to kill the soul: but rather fear him which is able to destroy both soul and body in hell [Gehenna]." (Matthew 10:28 KJV)

"And if thy hand offend thee, cut it off: it is better for thee to enter into life maimed, than having two hands to go into hell [Gehenna], into the fire that never shall be quenched: Where their worm dieth not, and the fire is not quenched." (Mark 9:43-44 KJV)

How is Gehenna so terrible that it should be feared more than death?

It seems to be popular opinion that permanent non-existence doesn't evoke feelings of fear, especially when compared to being physically killed.

Why should a wicked man, who lived prior to the "last days," stored up wealth for himself, obtained power, sought after his own lusts, and died as an old man, asleep in his his bed, care about THESE verses?

Isaiah 66:24, Daniel 12:2, Mathew 25:46, Matthew 24:51, Luke 3:17, Romans 2:8,9, 2 Thessalonians 1:9, Jude 7,13, Revelation 14:10, 11, Mark 9:43–48, Luke 16:19–31

What relevance do they have to him? None?

Is it only the wicked that are unfortunate enough to have been born during the period of armageddon that have anything to fear? And why, despite these passages, is their fate no worse than a wicked man who is given the death penalty, and never to be ressurected? Can you explain to me why Jesus uses such strong warnings and colorful language to warn of the dangers of God's wrath, if many people will suffer the same fate WITHOUT God's intervention, and some will ESCAPE it all together (dying before Armageddon, living a full life)?

Seriously, why should we fear God more than man? Because God makes sure we STAY DEAD?!??! Ooooooh, SCARY!! Nope, nothing to fear there. Ask any atheist. They're not scared of staying dead. Now, I'll be the first to tell you that living a life apart from God is unfulfilling. But dying just like everyone else, and then ceasing to exist for an eternity is not something that evokes fear, only emptiness. This lack of fear creates a major conflict with the scriptures stated. Not to mention, if you add in Ecc 9:5 as a literal text, there's no reward to be had, either! ;)

How do you reconcile these passages?

Given that the NT refers to both The Father and to the Son as "Lord"

....

When straying from the Westcott and Hort text, which manuscripts did they use to when chosing to replace "Lord" with "Jehovah"?

How old were these manuscripts?

Who produced them?

Were they used consistently? Where the modern manuscripts ignored when they assert deity to Christ? Were NWT footnotes created for every occurrance of the Divine name in the J manuscripts?

I already know the answers to these questions. Here the question that I REALLY want to know:

If you were previously aware, or have just become aware of the answers to the above questions, can you still put faith in your translation knowing that that these copies are modern, not anceint (14th century and newer), created with a bias, in their entirety in favor of the Deity of Christ, and cherry picked to support the use of Jehovah for the Father, insinuating that they are reliable support texts, yet ignoring the manuscripts altogether in passages where they clearly declare that it is the Son who has been called Jehovah?

Hint: See RBi footnote in 1 Thess 4:16 (proof text that is used to claim Jesus to be the Archangel.) Do any of the modern, biased manuscripts replace Lord with the Divine Name?

Following the logic that the Bible does not preach a literal hell, but rather a "permanent non-existence"

Do expressions like "weeping and gnashing of teeth", or "suffering the vengeance of eternal fire,” or “tormented with fire and brimstone,” or “fire that never shall be quenched” only apply to those who experience the wrath of God? Is the depth of these biblical expressions no more severe than the degree of fear and remorse experienced by a murderer just before his life is taken as retribution for his crimes?

How many countless millions of people have already suffered gruesome and premature deaths, including those who have hope of resurrection, beginning with Abel, and the wicked that will not be brought back? How would their suffering be any less severe than what the wicked experience when God pours out His wrath, also causing gruesome and premature death?

In contrast, how many more countless wicked people have lived long and full lives, dying before Armageddon, thereby escaping God's wrath entirely? All the wicked that died before are "off the hook?" What do the very vivid warnings of the dangers that result from straying from God mean for them? Now that they are dead, will they not just stay dead? What then, did they REALLY have to fear?

How, then, should we understand Matthew 10:28?

How do these verses fit in to this line of thinking?

Isaiah 66:24

Daniel 12:2

Mathew 25:46

Matthew 24:51

Luke 3:17

Romans 2:8,9

2 Thessalonians 1:9

Jude 7,13

Revelation 14:10, 11

Mark 9:43–48

Luke 16:19–31

http://www.watchtower.org/e/bh/appendix_11.htm states this:

Regarding the resurrected Lord Jesus Christ, 1 Thessalonians 4:16 states: “The Lord himself will descend from heaven with a commanding call, with an archangel’s voice.” Thus the voice of Jesus is described as being that of an archangel. This scripture therefore suggests that Jesus himself is the archangel Michael.

BUT WAIT!!!

Look at the footnote in 1 Thes 4:16!!

“The Lord,” אABVg; J7,8,13,14, “Jehovah.”

The footnote says that some of their support texts declare that this passage is NOT about Jesus descending, but about JEHOVAH DESCENDING!!

So then, according to the WTS' insistence that this verse indicates the Lord to be the archangel Michael, wouldn't we have to assume that Jehovah is Michael?

Or is it: Lord=Jehovah & Jesus= voice of Michael= trumpet= God?

Seriously, shouldn't this verse be tossed out as part of the Jesus is Michael argument?

If an "end of the world" date (or time frame) that is set by the WTS, or anyone else, comes and goes, must it have these qualities to be considered a false prophecy:

1) Referencing that this message comes directly from God?

2) Lack of Scriptural references to back up the claim?

3) Failing to admit to that it was simply an error after the event has passed?

If yes to all of the above, then Joe Blow can stand on a street corner for the rest of the year, announcing that according to Revelation, the world will pass away before 2010.. when the day passes, he remains silent on the matter, or even places the blame on those who made rash decisions based on his announcements... then wait until 2020 he can say that it was only a misinterpretation.... THEN he would have met the above criteria, and he would NOT be considered a false prophet?... even if he's previously claimed to be chosen by God to share Biblical truths with the world?

How does that jive with this Awake! magazine quote? Where are the above loopholes mentioned?

"True, there have been those in times past who predicted an "end to the world," even announcing a specific date. Some have gathered groups of people with them and fled to the hills or withdrawn into their houses waiting for the end." -- [Or sold their businesses (CT Rusell), or threw their money into the street [1975 debacle] -- "Yet, nothing happened. The "end" did not come. They were GUILTY of false prophesying. Why? What was Missing? Missing was the full measure of evidence required in fulfillment of Bible prophecy. Missing from such people were God's truths and the evidence that he was guiding and using them." - Awake Oct 8, 1968 page 23

If I said that, based on Biblical prophecy, we can expect the world to end in 2010, would I not be a false prophet when 2011 comes around?

Notice, I didn't speak "in Jehovah's name," nor did I pick a specific date. On Jan 1st, 2011, or even years later, I could easily admit that I had a misunderstanding of the Biblical prophecy.

According to the Awake! Magazine, I WOULD STILL be a false prophet. There are no "loop holes" or exclusions:

"True, there have been those in times past who predicted an "end to the world," even announcing a specific date. Some have gathered groups of people with them and fled to the hills or withdrawn into their houses waiting for the end." -- [Or sold their businesses (CT Rusell), or threw their money into the street [1975 debacle] -- "Yet, nothing happened. The "end" did not come. They were guilty of false prophesying. Why? What was Missing? Missing was the full measure of evidence required in fulfillment of Bible prophecy. Missing from such people were God's truths and the evidence that he was guiding and using them." - Awake Oct 8, 1968 page 23

Why is it that the JWs make up "loop holes" as they go along and apply these rules to themselves alone, all the while denouncing other "date choosers?"

Jesus answered and said unto him, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born again, he cannot see the kingdom of God. Nicodemus saith unto him, How can a man be born when he is old? can he enter the second time into his mother's womb, and be born? Jesus answered, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God. That which is born of the flesh is flesh; and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit. (John 3:3-6)

But ye are not in the flesh, but in the Spirit, if so be that the Spirit of God dwell in you. Now if any man have not the Spirit of Christ, he is none of his. (Romans 8:9)

NONE OF HIS... Not belonging to Christ.... Do YOU have the Spirit of Christ?

Why is it that articles that have once been considered "Spiritual 'food at the proper time' " now look so rancid?

These are actual beliefs formerly held by the Watchtower Society.

(LENGTHY PROOF will be provided upon request.)

- God's throne is Alcyone, a star in the Pleiades constellation

- The shape of your brain determines your desire (or lack thereof) to worship God

- Organ transplants considered cannibalistic

- Organ transplants cause "personality transplants"

- Beth Sarim, a mansion in San Diego CA, was to be a home for all prophets that would be resurrected in 1925.

- CT Russell previously believed that Jesus returned invisibly in 1874

- CT Russell used the Great Pyramid as support/evidence for his 1914 teaching

Was there ever "a proper time" for this "spritual food"?

Sure, human wisdom has numerous failures. But shouldn't it be different with an organization that claims God uses them ALONE for dispensing "the Truth©?"

Does this not damage their credibility at God's "chosen organization?"

Before saying that "the light gets brighter," please reflect on this statement:

"If we were following a man undoubtedly it would be different with us; undoubtedly one human idea would contradict another and that which was light one or two or six years ago would be regarded as darkness now; But with God there is no variableness, neither shadow of turning, and so it is with truth; any knowledge or light coming from God must be like its author. A new view of truth never can contradict a former truth. "New light" never extinguishes older light," but adds to it…" (Watchtower, Feb 1881, p.3)

How have these teachings gotten brighter (expanded on)? Or were they just discarded as darkness?

According to the passage, how many slaves were appointed?

Did the master find favor with all of the appointed slaves?

Should this passage be taken literally or figuratively?

Would it be logical to assume certain portions to be strictly literal while other parts are considered figurative? If so, based on what?

See the passage here:

http://www.blueletterbible.org/tools/MultiVerse.cf...

I know, strange question. But someone in my apt building (the door directly across the hall from me, actually) did this at 5:30 this morning. I told the manager about it. My suspicion is drug usage, and I want him out of our building. But if this is caused by an illness, than it should be dealt with differently than if its drugs and/or alcohol.

Our few interactions with him have been brief, but he seemed normal. He's a musician, and plays his music louder than appropriate after 10 p.m. But there is no indication that he has any type of mental disorders.

Has anyone heard of this type of behavior being caused by an illness, in an otherwise sane person? Are there any sleep disorders that can cause this type of behavior?

In the past, I found out that my $2,000 in side jobs became a waste of my time after filing taxes. I was told that this was due, largely in part, to being responsible to pay both halves of social security. From that point on, I refused to work as an independant contractor.

However, I've now found myself in a difficult position. I have been offered work again, as an independent contractor. The workflow is inconsistent, meaning that I don't expect to make a decent annual salary from it. Since I am required to file any earnings over $400, but I expect to earn less than $5,000 from this job, is it worth it?

Please help me understand why it was so much more costly to be an independant contractor, and at what point do the earnings outweigh the penalties.

Would you not consider it persecution if a teenager was studying to become a JW, and his parents threatened to kick him out for continuing to attend the kingdom hall meetings?

Is there a double standard when it comes to the children of JWs who chose to attend Christian churches and suffer the same type of persecution?

I propose that Brian (youtube - New Age Gamer) may lose his home because he found the real TRUTH: Jesus.

The question here, for clarification, is:

Whether or not a child is leaving or becoming a JW, is it not religious persecution to kick a child out of your home for not agreeing with your religious beliefs?

when he changes his faith and starts attending a Christian church....

do you consider that to be a degree of religious persecution?

I ask this because Jehovah's Witnesses, who are often a target of varying degrees of persecution believe that this is an indication that their religion is "the truth"... so what do you make out if it when they are INFLICTING persecution?

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=mjZmiaV7Ego&NR=1

In my upbrining, I don't remember being taught that it is wrong, nor can I remember any specific events where the issue would have come up.

It never occurred to me that this may be something that the Watchtower Society forbids as "unchristian," likened to gambling and playing the lotto.

If it discouraged/forbidden, does that mean that the games at arcades (where you put money in to try and win more tokens and other prizes) are also considered unacceptable? Or how about the game with a claw to win a stuffed animal? Or carnival games?

How far does it go?

Anything that involves the combination of spending money for a chance to win a prize?

Where is the line?

Elder Moyle, you got any insight on this?

I know that many of the JWs see me as an "apostate" and worthy of shuning, even though I was never baptized. But for those who are still willing to answer my question here it is:

I realize that your former teachings are considered irrelevant because of your "increased understanding." But there is one former teaching, regarding this very concept of "new light," that I want clarification on:

Is this teaching also now irrelevant?

"If we were following a man undoubtedly it would be different with us; undoubtedly one human idea would contradict another and that which was light one or two or six years ago would be regarded as darkness now; But with God there is no variableness, neither shadow of turning, and so it is with truth; any knowledge or light coming from God must be like its author. A new view of truth never can contradict a former truth. 'New light' never extinguishes older light," but adds to it…"

(Watchtower, Feb 1881, p.3)

I ask because there have been contridictions in the teachings over the years. So, that would either make this quote false, or the religion false.

Please explain.

Thanks.