Can someone explain Aristotle's Law of Non-contradiction?
In particular, what does Aristotle mean when he says "at the same time" and "in the same respect"?
Focusing on Book IV (Gamma, I believe), I'm trying to analyze the law's place in human thought and rationality. The "in the same time" qualification seems obvious, but I'm unsure about "in the same respect". Moreover, how would the law falter if one or both of those qualifications weren't included?
I'm particularly weak at understanding philosophy, so any explanations would be appreciated.
?2012-02-04T11:07:53Z
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What does it mean to say "in the same respect"? If I say "My mother is dead, but my mother is alive" it makes no sense until I explain that I mean my mother is 'dead to me' but she is actually alive. 'Dead' in this 'respect' doesn't mean her body is no longer living; I mean it in the 'respect' that she is 'dead to me'.
That one would be rather obscure, but authors and regular people are often obscure. Charles Dickens wrote, "It was the best of times; it was the worst of times." He didn't mean them in the same respect, but it takes a chapter to explain that difference.
If one of those restrictions were not applied (where it was necessary to apply it) then you could say "It was the best of times; it was the worst of times, both at the same time and in the same respect." That would be incoherent.
It fairly simple, a thing can not be and be at the same time. The sun can not be in the sky and not in the sky at the same time, or else there is a contradiction, making the proposition illogical. However, the sun can be in the sky, and not in the sky at the same time, for two people can be observing it at two different locations. This is to say the universe doesn't always follow Aristotle's law of non-contradiction. So there are exceptions to this law, but usually it applied to simple statements such as "x is a grape," therefore "x "can not" "be not" a grape." If you follow this law, statement a will not negate statement b. If you don't follow the law, statement a, negates the statement. Example of not following the law "x is a grape, and x is not a grape." The idea is to follow this law so as not to negate the first proposition. So what does x equal if your not following the law of non-contradiction? This is another matter of logic, not touched upon by many philosophers. If you looking to understand illogical more, look up quantum logic, that says a thing both is and isn't in different times, that take place parallel to one another, creating totally different universes.
Don't just say look at all the contradictions, identify them because you haven't brought any evidence. The Quran is full of contradictions and the only thing you can do is say that the verse that came later on is the one you should follow. God does not change his mind like that so the Quran is not from God. Different situations that Muhammad experienced made him change what the Quran says. Plus everything in the Quran is just a copy of Christianity, Judaism, Paganism, and whatever Muhammad desired.
RE: Can someone explain Aristotle's Law of Non-contradiction? In particular, what does Aristotle mean when he says "at the same time" and "in the same respect"?
Focusing on Book IV (Gamma, I believe), I'm trying to analyze the law's place in human thought and rationality. The "in the same time" qualification seems...