Which is statement false?
1. Divorce is only allowed for fornication.
B. All sins are the same to God.
If both are true then any sin is fornication and grounds for divorce.
1. Divorce is only allowed for fornication.
B. All sins are the same to God.
If both are true then any sin is fornication and grounds for divorce.
Melkha
Favorite Answer
Both statements are false.
G*D allowed divorce for any reason.
All sin is NOT the same. Some sins are easily corrected, while the punishment for other sins was lashes, and yet other sins the punishment was death. Obviously NOT all equal
The_Doc_Man
In many states of the USA, divorce is legally allowed for adultery (fornication among other things), irreconcilable differences, and when one spouse commits a crime that will cause that person to be in a long-term prison sentence. The latter case actually happened to a member of my family in my parents' generation.
Since God doesn't exist, all sins are equally the same - i.e. there is no sin. Crimes against law? Yes. Sins against God? No.
ANDRE L
1. No fault divorce exists in every major jurisdiction in the western world.
B. “Sin lies only in hurting other people unnecessarily. All other "sins" are invented nonsense. (Hurting yourself is not sinful - just stupid).”
Robert A. Heinlein (American science-fiction Writer, 1907-1988)
-I contend we are both atheists, I just believe in one fewer god than you do. When you understand why you dismiss all the other possible gods, you will understand why I dismiss yours.--Stephen F. Roberts
mo in the middle
Both.
You can divorce for a variety of reasons that vary from state to state.
There is no god.
Anonymous
Neither...as a Christian you can believe that heavenly father wants you to be happy in a marriage if its possible, if not then he has other plans for you. From a nonreligious standpoint you can think that everything is okay because you're providing better for yourself