Why must unions have the consent of their members to donate to elections but not corporations?

I mean, since businesses outspend unions 15 to 1, shouldn't the former have higher priority?

http://www.opensecrets.org/overview/blio.php


Also, if unions actually have more sway, why do Republicans defend Citizens United?

http://www.unionfacts.com/article/political-money/what-citizens-united-means-for-union-political-spending/

Anonymous2014-05-05T15:42:49Z

Unions don't have to have the consent of their members on WHO they donate to. Besides, businesses can donate to Democrats too.

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Anonymous2014-05-05T16:19:03Z

question is false but someone has addressed that

10

u_bin_called2014-05-05T15:47:02Z

corporations answer to their shareholders who get to vote with ballots and their pocketbooks...

...and unlike many union votes, corporate shareholder votes are secret ballot...requiring open ballots is just one of many ways corrupt unions have controlled their memberships...

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