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Why must unions have the consent of their members to donate to elections but not corporations?
I mean, since businesses outspend unions 15 to 1, shouldn't the former have higher priority?
http://www.opensecrets.org/overview/blio.php
Also, if unions actually have more sway, why do Republicans defend Citizens United?
3 Answers
- Anonymous7 years ago
Unions don't have to have the consent of their members on WHO they donate to. Besides, businesses can donate to Democrats too.
- Anonymous7 years ago
question is false but someone has addressed that
- u_bin_calledLv 77 years ago
corporations answer to their shareholders who get to vote with ballots and their pocketbooks...
...and unlike many union votes, corporate shareholder votes are secret ballot...requiring open ballots is just one of many ways corrupt unions have controlled their memberships...
