What, exactly, constitutes a "mandate"? Is it a 48-46 popular vote win, a 57-43 EC vote win, or neither?

2016-12-23T19:01:48Z

One user out here seems to think the former. I'm just curious what other people think.

Sorry for the lack of percentage signs. I couldn't submit the question with them.

2016-12-23T19:03:16Z

Referenced question: /question/index?qid=20161223184519AAV5Jk8

2016-12-23T19:05:56Z

Pearlmar - I would tend to agree. I wonder how many past Presidents have viewed the narrowness (or width) of their win and altered their plans accordingly.

Kini2016-12-23T19:38:44Z

Favorite Answer

No, it is the strong will of those who supported you that you implement your platform. It is neither popular vote since they vote for many other reasons and not the Electoral vote since half of those people are pledged to support a particular candidate regardless of popular vote.

Anonymous2016-12-23T19:03:24Z

A mandate comes from the will of the majority. When Obama was elected in 2008 he won the electoral vote AND the popular vote (by about 6 million). Now THAT was a mandate.

Marduk2016-12-23T19:23:56Z

Republicans have mandates, Democrats never do. It has to do with saying you do and devil take the hindmost. Trump has a mandate even though he lost by 3 million votes.

Anonymous2016-12-23T19:05:16Z

Men dating each other.

choko_canyon2016-12-23T19:13:29Z

Whatever the victor claims that it is.