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Lv 7
? asked in Politics & GovernmentPolitics · 4 years ago

What, exactly, constitutes a "mandate"? Is it a 48-46 popular vote win, a 57-43 EC vote win, or neither?

Update:

One user out here seems to think the former. I'm just curious what other people think.

Sorry for the lack of percentage signs. I couldn't submit the question with them.

Update 2:

Referenced question: /question/index?qid=20161...

Update 3:

Pearlmar - I would tend to agree. I wonder how many past Presidents have viewed the narrowness (or width) of their win and altered their plans accordingly.

5 Answers

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  • Kini
    Lv 7
    4 years ago
    Favorite Answer

    No, it is the strong will of those who supported you that you implement your platform. It is neither popular vote since they vote for many other reasons and not the Electoral vote since half of those people are pledged to support a particular candidate regardless of popular vote.

  • Anonymous
    4 years ago

    A mandate comes from the will of the majority. When Obama was elected in 2008 he won the electoral vote AND the popular vote (by about 6 million). Now THAT was a mandate.

  • Marduk
    Lv 7
    4 years ago

    Republicans have mandates, Democrats never do. It has to do with saying you do and devil take the hindmost. Trump has a mandate even though he lost by 3 million votes.

  • Anonymous
    4 years ago

    Men dating each other.

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  • 4 years ago

    Whatever the victor claims that it is.

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