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Is this a miss deal or does the hand stand (Texas Hold'em)?
Okay, so it always seems when I play no limit hold'em situations always arise that we argue about what should happen.
Here is the situation from last night.
The cards were dealt out and one flipped over...so as rules state this was just used as the first burn card.
Play goes on and Player 1 gets a straight, Player 2 gets two pair.
Player 1 starts pulling in the winnings when Player 2 questions if the dealer burnt and extra card before turning over the flop.
They had...which means the cards would have been slightly different...probably preventing Player 1's straight.
Player 1 having won automatically says "no, the hands over, it doesn't make any difference." Player 2 says "I think it's a miss deal...the chips should go back and new hand played".
Player 2 gives in and play moves on.
Player 1 is actually quite a jerk and we hate playing with him but was he right? or was Player 2 right? I really don't know what whould happen in this situation. thanks.
6 Answers
- Anonymous1 decade agoFavorite Answer
Sort of both. Player 2 is correct, it was a mis-deal. The hand should have been redealt so that everyone gets a fair chance. BUT, the hand was concluded, and player 1 announced his straight, with player 2 announcing his 2 pair. Player one started raking in the chips, the hand is over. Any problems can be solved during the hand, not after money is being exchanged. That would get you shot in some of the places I've played in.
Source(s): me - MoMoney23Lv 51 decade ago
Player 2 is right. It's not called a misdeal, per say, even though the dealer of that hand did mess up by putting an extra burn card. If possible, the best way to rectify the situation is to recreate it. So you'd pull back the "river" which wasn't really the river and place it back on top of the deck. That card never really came. Then you'd walk it back from there correcting the action. So Player 1 would not have got his straight, but player 2 would probably not gotten 2 pair either.
If there was no way to recreate the situation to correct it; the cards already too messed up and ready for the next hand, the ruling would be that both players get their chips back. So yes, player 2 was right.
Source(s): I am a professional poker dealer. - 1 decade ago
It's not a misdeal, if only one card was accidentally exposed as hole cards were being dealt and the correct procedure was used from that point.
The correct procedure is to continue dealing, as if the card had not been exposed, until all players have their hole cards. The exposed card should then be replaced with what would have been the first burn card, and placed on the deck to take that cards place. The only circumstances that would be considered a misdeal is: 1) first card dealt to the small blind, big blind or the button are exposed, or 2) more than one hole card is exposed.
The burn card should never be "burned" until all action of the betting round is complete. If this rule is followed, along with placing the burn cards in a place where they can be accounted for, this problem could have been avoided. The purpose of burn cards is to conceal the next community card from players that could possibly benefit from marked cards. If it's burnt before the action is complete, it defeats the purpose of having it.
Chips should only "go back" in the event of an actual misdeal, otherwise substantial action forces the hand to continue and be played to conclusion.
- sabes99Lv 61 decade ago
player 2 is correct, since the dealer burnt an extra card it is a misdeal, and the last card on the flop should have been burnt for the turn...the board and burn cards should be removed and reshuffled, and the board should be redealt
- 1 decade ago
I think its a misdeal, but should have been caught probably in when the cards were flopped before the river cards.