If Jesus was born WITHOUT original Sin....?

This is a pretty common question, but it's generally asked under the assumption that repentence was the only reason for immersions. While that may be true in Christian circles today, that wasn't always the case. Let me try to explain and give a little background information before I answer the question of why Yeshua was "baptized."

In Hebrew 6:1-2, we read:

Therefore leaving the elementary teachings about Messiah, let us go on to perfection; not laying again the foundation of repentance from dead works, and of faith toward God, of the doctrine of baptisms, and of laying on of hands, and of the resurrection of the dead, and of eternal judgment.

Note that the word "baptisms" is plural. Without going to far into the details (for those interested, I deal with those in this study on our website: http://www.foundationsmin.org/studies/baptism.htm) - briefly, the reason for the plurality of the word "baptisms" is that there is more than one type of immersion found in the ceremonies of ancient Biblical teachings (I also deal with the question raised concerning Ephesians 4:5, which speaks of "one baptism" in the aforementioned article):

Leviticus 15 is an important chapter containing detailed instructions about ritual immersion. Three Hebrew words are used in this chapter for ritual washing:

Rachatz is "to wash, bathe" this is only used for people.

Shataf is "to wash, rinse, overflow, engulf, rinse or wash off" and is used once in Leviticus 15 (v11) for rinsing hands.

Kabas is "to wash, to be washed out" and this is used only for things, clothes etc.

In addition, three types of ritual washing mentioned in biblical and talmudic literature:

Tevilah - complete immersion

Rachatz - washing of the feet and hands and

Netilah Yadayim - washing of the hands

There are several reasons why a Jewish person would undergo a ritual immersion: When a Gentile converts to Judaism - When an individual is crowned king - At age 13 when a Jewish boy chooses to embrace God's covenant and be numbered with the believers - When an individual gets married - When an individual becomes a rabbi - When an individual becomes the head of a rabbinical school. You'll notice that each of these is a lifechanging event.

So, immersion was observed for a variety of reasons. Yet another of these is the immersion of repentance, the practice we find John the Baptist engaging in the gospel of Matthew. John was the son of Zechariah, of the Levitical clan of Abijah (Luke 1:5). As a Levite, John would have been well accustomed to ceremonial immersions. In fact, one custom among the Levites was that in order for a priest to be ordained, he had to undergo immersion and have that ritual purification witnessed by another Levite. In Matthew, chapter three, we find Yeshua coming to John for baptism. This has long perplexed Believers with the question, "If the Messiah was without sin, why did he need to go through the immersion?" - which brings me to my answer to your question.

Alfred Edersheim aptly points out "Had it primarily and always been a 'baptism of repentance,' He [Yeshua] could not have submitted to it" (The Life, p. 280). I'd have to agree - Yeshua had nothing to be repentant of, no sins to confess. However, He was about thirty years of age, the biblically required age of a man to be ordained a priest. John was a Levite, qualified to witness such immersions. When Yeshua says, "We must fulfill all things righteously," (Matthew 3:15) He is not referring to a baptism of repentance, but rather stepping into the waters of ordination. Yeshua was about to take on his mantle as our great High Priest.

Ok, heres the facts. Jesus was fully human and fully God at the same time. He is creator of human life, which includes his own mother mary. God knew from all eternity that she would the mother of Jesus, and so God , because He IS God, merely applied the redemption of mankind prior to Jesus actually doing it, since He is outside of time and space, He can apply those graces and merits of Jesus Before rather than after. Which is what He did to Mary. In other words, Mary did not have to fall into the dirty water first and then be made clean, NO< God prevented her from falling into it at all, so in essence He saved her also, as he did all man, but just before rather than after. He created her then with the absence of original sin which is called the immaculate conception. Why would God do this? Need anyone ask!!? If Mary, was to be the mother of an all holy Christ and Lord the mother would have to also be holy and without any stain of sin. Remember how the ark of the covenant could not even be touched lest you would die? How much MORE SO, the son of God? He created his mother, holy and pure, and thus she is called the immaculate conception, which is God's masterpiece.

The purpose of the Baptism of Jesus was not for the cleansing of sin but introduced Baptism as a means of salvation. The effect on Jesus was that His Baptism was an ordination or the laying on of hands to begin His ministry of establishing His Church and being the atoning sacrifice. So, Christ served mankind both through His Baptism and His sacrifice on the cross. (1 Peter 3:21 )

In Christ

Fr. Joseph

Jesus baptism wasn't for sin. But symbolic rite of the changing of priesthood where Jesus takes on the position of the Eternal Great High Priest that the book of Hebrews talks about.

He was baptized, yes. In the third chapter of Matthew, John the Baptist baptized Jesus and witnessed how the Holy

Spirit descended on Jesus in the form of a dove.

You are correct in that it was not required to cleanse any sin, but as a sign of humility toward the Father and the taking on of human flesh:

Wasn't born without sin?

I'm confused.

I thought the flesh was by definition sinful. If the Word was made flesh then wasn't it sinful.

If man is sinful by nature then how could someone who is half man (half sinful) atone for all sin. I've heard it said that Jesus was all god and all man but that just adds to the problem of sinful flesh atoning for sinful flesh.

Help me out here.

When Jesus came to John to be baptized, John asked the same question. Why should he, a sinful man, baptize the Messiah? He tried to prevent Jesus from being baptized saying “I need to be baptized by You and You are coming to me?” (Matthew 3:14). The baptisms that John performed symbolized repentance, and he saw this as inappropriate for the One he knew to be the spotless Lamb of God. Jesus replied that it should be done because “it is fitting for us to fulfill all righteousness” (Matthew 3:15). Christ was here identifying Himself with sinners. He will ultimately bear their sins; His perfect righteousness will be imputed to them (2 Corinthians 5:21). Therefore, this act of baptism was a necessary part of the righteousness He secured for sinners. His was a perfect righteousness in that He fulfilled all the requirements of the Law which we, for whose sin He would exchange His righteousness, are not capable of fulfilling. He is our perfect substitute.

This baptism was a very public one and was recorded for all generations to know about and understand, and it is important for several reasons. First, it pictures His death and resurrection. Second, it symbolizes the believer’s identification with Christ in His death, burial, and resurrection. Third, it marks His first public identification with those whose sins He would bear. Fourth, the event was a public affirmation of His Messiahship by the testimony that came directly from heaven (Matthew 3:17).

Water baptism is used as a way to identify. In Jesus’ day, when a Gentile would convert to Judaism, he would have to be publicly baptized to identify him as a convert. Obviously, Jesus was not converting to anything. Jesus’ baptism was an identification of Jesus with the Father and the Holy Spirit. Jesus was baptized to publicly announce Himself as God’s Son, and to pronounce the beginning of His ministry with the Holy Spirit’s power. Jesus did not “need” the Holy Spirit. However, to set an example for us, Jesus emptied Himself (Philippians 2:7) and relied upon the Holy Spirit’s power. Jesus' baptism and reliance upon the Holy Spirit is an example that we are to follow in our own lives.

Recommended Resource: Seeing and Savoring Jesus Christ by John Piper.

Because baptism is a commandment of God. Therefore if He was not baptized He would not have been keeping ALL of God's commandments. So He wasn't baptized to wash away His sin, but to fulfill all that God had asked Him to do.

This comes from the book of Mormon and helped me understand better.

2 Nephi 31: 5 And now, if the Lamb of God, he being holy, should have need to be baptized by water, to fulfil all righteousness, O then, how much more need have we, being unholy, to be baptized, yea, even by water!

6 And now, I would ask of you, my beloved brethren, wherein the Lamb of God did fulfil all righteousness in being baptized by water?

7 Know ye not that he was holy? But notwithstanding he being holy, he showeth unto the children of men that, according to the flesh he humbleth himself before the Father, and witnesseth unto the Father that he would be obedient unto him in keeping his commandments.

baptism is not the washing away of sins, it is public conformation of your faith in Christ as your savior,and Jesus did it as an example for us,not because He sinned.