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Billy M asked in SportsBaseball · 1 decade ago

Earned run scoring question?

Pitcher gets 2 outs in an inning. Next batter reached on an error. Next batter hits a home run. Those 2 runs clearly are unearned.

At this point, relief pitcher comes in. Relief pitcher gives up a single and a home run. Are those two runs charged as earned runs to relief pitcher? Does the fact that he came into the game after the inning should have been over absolve him of any runs he gives up in that inning? I'm thinking the 2 runs are charged as earned to relief pitcher in that scenario, but I am not sure if that's right.

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  • CWSfan
    Lv 4
    1 decade ago
    Favorite Answer

    I believe it works like this. The first pitchers get 2 unearned runs. the relief pitcher get 2 earned runs and the team gets credited with 4 unearned runs. The relief pitcher is accountable for the runs but the team is not.

  • 1 decade ago

    Unearned. The error would have been the third out of the inning with no runs scored. One run would have been charged to the first pitcher and the homer would be the responsiblity of the second pitcher.

    Source(s): MLB Rule 10.18
  • ?
    Lv 4
    4 years ago

    If a batter reaches base or scores, and the play that facilitates him to be triumphant in base or to attain is an errors, it is not an earned run. you could desire to remember that it takes no longer something faraway from the batter (properly, till he reaches base on an errors that's), yet is very in terms of the pitcher. it is approximately no be counted if the run became earned off of the pitcher, or in the event that they only earned the run because of the fact of a fielder's mistake. Take your difficulty. Had the 0.33 baseman fielded the ball cleanly, he would have certainly held the runner on 0.33, in the different case a minimum of been waiting to make a play on the plate. In that difficulty, if the runner say slides in under the tag and scores, then it is an earned run. To me, the extra confusing ruling is that for the period of that case, the batter might attain no longer on a fulfillment, yet on a fielder's decision. So is it merely that if/whilst he scores, it is unearned, or does the runner coming from 0.33 additionally get scored unearned, when you consider that he became stepped forward and not utilising a fulfillment?

  • 1 decade ago

    It does not matter if a pitching change occurs or not -- the runs scored after what should have been an inning ending play are always scored as unearned regardless of who they are charged to.

    Source(s): former umpire who learned to score the game when i was a kid.
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  • 1 decade ago

    Earned runs for the reliever but unearned runs for the team. It happens in one or two games every season or three.

  • Anonymous
    1 decade ago

    I'm not entirely sure. It might actually be the official scorer's decision.

  • 1 decade ago

    I believe you are correct.

  • 1 decade ago

    your correct.

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