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Question on faburden in music?
I'm studying for an exam for a recap on Music History as a Grad student. Since I haven't been in school since 1922 (exaggerating) I'm a little rusty but alot is coming back to me as I've been studying. However, I don't want to be misinformed with what I have.
Should we consider polyphony in the latin texts in English liturgy pretty much faburden in the 15th century? I'm not seeing much of a difference. If I am incorrect, please inform me. And by the way, I am looking at the Renaissance period.
Any historian willing to help an unsure opera singer would be appreciated. LOL!
3 Answers
- 1 decade agoFavorite Answer
I wasn't familiar with this term but I do have access to the Grove Dictionary. The entry for "Faburden" goes into great detail (about 5 pages) but right up front you get this commentary
"By 1462 the name 'faburden' was being used to designate the whole technique or complex of the three voices, so that one might speak of singing the "Magnificat" 'in faburthon' ....
So looks like the answer to your question is yes.
Source(s): Grove, George. New Grove Dictionary of Music and Musicians. Basingstoke, England: Grove, 1999. (pg. 496) - hafwenLv 61 decade ago
"Faburden" is also spelt "Fauxbourdon" (French = "false bass")
Here's an interesting article, with examples:
