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BC and AD vs BCE and CE?
If the Christian Era defined by calendar time frames BC and AD (before Christ and the year of our Lord respectively).
Why do we need a new Acronym BCE and CE (before common era and common era) to reference the common era?
That's a redundancy of an attempt to be politically correct isn't it?
the year xxx Before Common Era (ie Before Christ).
12 Answers
- Anonymous1 decade agoFavorite Answer
answer: Because Jesus is irrelevant to the majority of the world. BCE and CE is more respectful which is always a good thing.
- 5 years ago
Non-Christians have lived with a Christian-based notation for almost 1500 years without "standing up and saying stop it." How long has BCE/CE been around? A few hundred years, if you count early usages. Personally I don't care either way. I'm just amused that when someone challenges what you think is right, you're all up in arms, yet forcing what you think is right upon others is acceptable. The people promoting BCE/CE are just as "right" as the people promoting BC/AD. Perhaps there's a bit more reason to just keep the BC/AD notation since it's been around so long. Federal/State employees may talk about Christ in a historical sense as much as they desire.
- 1 decade ago
AD is used to refer to dates after Christ or the Lord.
BC is sued to refer to dates before Jesus.
Unfortunately they are not actually accurate as Jesus was born BEFORE AD and BEFORE BC ended. Consequently 1 BC, as an example came AFTER Jesus birth, yet the BC ending would suggest before it.
The BCE and CE are simply a bit more accurate. As an example Jesus was probably born in 2 BCE (2 BC)
The "Common Era" started at the end of 1BC and the beginning of 1 AD. Remember there is no zero year.
- 1 decade ago
What I don't get is why the "common era" started in the same year Jesus was supposedly born. If you're going to really be PC about it, you have to first define the era. I personally have no problem still using BC or AD years, even though I'm an atheist. Too much hassle to change.
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- ?Lv 71 decade ago
The "Christian Era" is ill-defined. Herod the Great, who (according to the Bible) was still alive when Jesus was alive, died in 4 BCE. The rulers mentioned in Luke 3 actually span a period of more than 60 years.
- 1 decade ago
It should stay the same if we change this then that would mean plenty of other things would need to be changed to be "politically correct".. lets not waste our time with this nonsense. For example october...means "the eight month" yet it is the tenth in our reformed calendar (originally there were 10 months in the original roman calendar) or november means the 9th month, august was named for augustus, who was a deified after his death. If we change BC and AD our whole system of dating and time may have to be looked at in order to be "politically correct" there is no need...besides ano dominae has a nice ring to it :)
Source(s): myself, interest in romans - 1 decade ago
Well, it depends on what you are talking about. For example, when describing Christian art, you would use B.C. and A.D. But for, say, Asian art, BCE and CE are used. It does have to do with political correctness, in a way. Non-Christian related things should generally be described with BCE and CE in a scholarly setting.
- jessicakayyyLv 41 decade ago
I agree with the other poster...if they want to do that..fine...but why would the time period stay exactly the same as BC and AD....it's still centered around Jesus so how is it really more politically correct? If they are that set on changing it, then pick a new date for the "common era" to begin.
- ?Lv 71 decade ago
Most people around the world don't really care about Jesus.
Using BCE and CE is more inclusive, and is simply a better standard than BC/AD, despite being essentially the same thing.
- LJMLv 71 decade ago
I still say B.C and A.D. It isn't against the law yet, is it? I think it is just and effort to make Jesus irrelevant.