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Lv 6

Why is this scripture used to promote the idea that no more additional scriptures can be written?

Rev 22:18 For I testify unto every man that heareth the words of the prophecy of this book, If any man shall add unto these things, God shall add unto him the plagues that are written in this book:

The book of Revelation was not a part of any compilation of books until the 1600’s, when it was included in what we now have as the New Testament! He couldn’t possibly have meant that no more scripture should be added to the cannon of scripture we have today, because it simply didn’t exist at the time he wrote those words!

Yet many scholars refer to this exact verse to claim that no more scripture can be added to what we have?

Update:

Well I stand corrected, it could have been in some compiled works, but the New Testament that we have now was not in existence when John wrote those words.

My point is this:This verse can not be used to promote the idea that there will never be any additional scriptures.

2 Answers

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  • ?
    Lv 7
    1 decade ago
    Favorite Answer

    Well, when people blindly accept the Bible as literally true, they are automatically not going to believe what you wrote. Some of my fundamentalist friends have used that verse to try to convince me that I shouldn't interpret the Bible in the way I want to, which is not literally.

    It's a verse meant to ftighten people, plain and simple.

    Peace!

  • 1 decade ago

    "he book of Revelation was not a part of any compilation of books until the 1600’s, when it was included in what we now have as the New Testament"

    Totally inaccurate statement - the book of revelation appears in many early (first & second century) catalogues and has been part of the accepted canon LONG before 1600

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