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F
Lv 6
F asked in Science & MathematicsMathematics · 1 decade ago

Partial fractions - integral?

Hi.

How do I change the following function into partial fractions so I can integrate it:

(1-3x) / (x(1+x^2))

Show me how it is done, please.

Thank you.

5 Answers

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  • Anonymous
    1 decade ago
    Favorite Answer

    In order to integrate this by partial fractions, I would break up ((1 - 3x) / (x * (1 + x^2))) into

    (1/x) - ((x+3) / (x^2 + 1)) and then attempt to integrate these separately.

    We know that ∫ dx / x = ln(x), so all that we have to concentrate on is the second fraction...<<<...First result

    For the moment only I am going to forget about the minus sign and I am going to break this fraction into two separate fractions.

    (x / (x^2 + 1)) and (3 / x^2 + 1)

    First let's look at (x / x^2 + 1).

    Let u = x^2 + 1

    Then du = 2dx and du/2 = dx

    So this integral becomes ∫ (du/2) / u = (1/2) * ∫ du/u = 1/2 * ln(u)

    Since u = x^2 + 1 we now know that:

    ∫ x / (x^2 + 1) dx = (ln(x^2 + 1) / 2) ...<<<...Second result and I will now put the minus sign back in here to get:

    -(ln(x^2 + 1) / 2)

    -----

    Now we have to solve ∫ -3 dx / (x^2 + 1)

    We know that the derivative of arctan(z) = 1 / (z^2 + 1)

    I will put that proof at the bottom of this answer.

    Hence ∫ (1 / (x^2 + 1)) = arctan(x) and ∫ (-3 / (x^2 + 1)) = -3 arctan(x)

    -----

    Putting all of this together we have the final answer:

    ln(x) - [ (ln(x^2 + 1) / 2)] - 3 arctan(x) + C .....<<<<<.....Answer

    .

    ----------------------------------

    The Derivative of the Arctangent of x

    Let y = arctan(x)

    Then x = tan(y)............Differentiate both sides of this equation in terms of x. This is implicit differentiation.

    d(x)/dx = d(tan(y))/dy * dy/dx

    1 = d(tan(y)/dx) * dy/dx

    dy/dx = 1 / d(tan(y)/dy

    Since the derivative of tan(z) = sec^2(z)

    dy/dx = 1 / sec^2(y)

    Trig Identity: sec^2(z) = tan^2(z) + 1 for any real number z.

    Note: This can be easily derived from the basic identity sin^2(x) + cos^2(x) = 1, simply by dividing both sides of this equation by cos^2(x).

    So dy/dx = (1 / (1 + tan^2(y))

    But looking above, x = tan(y), so:

    1 + tan^2(y) = (1 / 1 + x^2) and

    dy/dx = 1 / (1 + x^2)

    End proof.

  • Anonymous
    5 years ago

    Decompose this expression into partial fractions by comparing coefficients: (x + 1) / (x³ - x² + x - 1) = (x + 1) / [(x - 1)(x² + 1)] (x + 1) / (x³ - x² + x - 1) = A / (x - 1) + (Bx + C) / (x² + 1) x + 1 = A(x² + 1) + Bx(x - 1) + C(x - 1) x + 1 = Ax² + A + Bx² - Bx + Cx - C x + 1 = (A + B)x² - (B - C)x + (A - C) A + B = 0 B - C = -1 A - C = 1 Solving these equations gives A = 1, B = -1, C = 0. (x + 1) / (x³ - x² + x - 1) = 1 / (x - 1) - x / (x² + 1) Integrate the expression term by term using this result: ∫ (x + 1) / (x³ - x² + x - 1) dx = ∫ [1 / (x - 1) - x / (x² + 1)] dx ∫ (x + 1) / (x³ - x² + x - 1) dx = ∫ 1 / (x - 1) dx - ∫ 2x / (x² + 1) dx / 2 ∫ (x + 1) / (x³ - x² + x - 1) dx = ln|x - 1| - ln(x² + 1) / 2 + C

  • Anonymous
    1 decade ago

    Let

    1-3x=A(x^2+1)+x(Bx+C) identically

    where A,B & C are constants, then

    when x=0, get A=1

    when x=i (i^2=-1 is the imaginary unit), get

    1-3i=i(Bi+C)=>

    1-3i=-B+Ci=>

    B=1 & C=-3

    So, (1-3x)/[x(1+x^2)]=1/x-(x+3)/(x^2+1)

  • 1 decade ago

    I would not use partial fraction method. I would just break it up.

    (1 - 3x) / (x(1+x^2))

    = 1/(x*(1+x^2)) - 3/(1+x^2)

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  • Anonymous
    1 decade ago

    1/(x(x^2+1))=

    A/x+(Bx+C)/(x^2+1)

    Meaning:

    1=A(x^2+1)+(Bx+C)x

    1=Ax^2+A+Bx^2+Cx

    A=1, leaving:

    0=x^2+Bx^2+Cx

    B=-1:

    0=Cx

    C=0, leaving:

    1/(x(1+x^2))=

    1/x - x/(x^2+1)

    Think you can take it from here?

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