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Dr M
Lv 5
Dr M asked in Science & MathematicsPhysics · 1 decade ago

A question about dilation of time?

The speed of light in a vacuum is the same for all observers, regardless of their relative motion or of the motion of the source of the light.

The above statement is assumption in theory of relativity. This is true when the observers motion is negligible compared to speed of light.

Can this be applied when the relative spedd of the observers is close to speed of light?

4 Answers

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  • Anonymous
    1 decade ago
    Favorite Answer

    Yes it can be applied.

    When Einstein was trying to come up with his revolutionary ideas as a patent clerk, he pondered if it was possible to ride on a beam of light if you were at its speed.

    While it is proven to be impossible to travel at the speed of light since the energy you possess will be converted into mass making your mass infinite as you approach the speed of light, it is very true that light will always travel at the speed of light. In other words, there is no relative speed.

  • ?
    Lv 4
    5 years ago

    I dont recognize if being dehydrated can reason exertions, however its definately NOT well for you. You have to hold your self hydrated. And dilating and effacing in conjunction with braxton hicks is all facet of the system. Some humans dont dilate or efface til they're in exertions, and a few have already began by the point they move into exertions. It will make the laboring system simpler in case your cervix is already ripe. Depending on how some distance alongside you're, your document will have to begin doing inside checks after the 36 week mark at each appt to peer in case your cervix is ripening. If he has performed this and "wont inform but", you have to DEMAND an reply. There isn't any intent he will have to hold this from you. If he did an examination and simply didnt point out being dilated, I might say your normally don't seem to be dilated but.

  • 1 decade ago

    Hope this text from wikipedia will help understand things...

    http://www.physicsforums.com/archive/index.php/t-1...

    If two cars approach each other from opposite directions, each traveling at a speed of 50 km/h relative to the road surface, according to intuitive Galilean relativity, one expects that an observer in one car will measure the speed of approach of the other car as 50 + 50 = 100 km/h. However, as speeds increase, the simple addition of speeds becomes less accurate. Two spaceships approaching each other, each traveling at 90% of the speed of light in opposite directions relative to some third observer, would not measure each other as approaching at 90% + 90% = 180% the speed of light; instead they each measure the other as approaching at slightly less than 99.5% the speed of light. This last result is given by the velocity-composition formula[35]

    u = (v1+v2)/[ 1+ (v1v2/c)]

    where v1 and v2 are the velocities of the spaceships as measured by the third observer, and u is the measured velocity of either spaceship as observed by the other. This reduces to u = v1 + v2 for sufficiently small values of v1 and v2 (such as those typically encountered in common daily experiences) as the term (v1·v2)/c2 can be discarded, reducing the denominator to 1.

    If one of the two velocities v in the above formula is c, the final result is c, as is expected if the speed of light is the same in all inertial reference frames. Another important result is that this formula never returns a value greater than c. This is consistent with c being the maximum possible speed.

  • 1 decade ago

    Yes. Even if you are travelling at 99.99999% of the speed of light and switched on a torch, you would not "see" the photons travel away from you at 0.00001% light speed, it would be observed at full speed. c is *always* invariant.

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