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Dee W
Lv 7
Dee W asked in Science & MathematicsMathematics · 1 decade ago

I don't remember how to do this. Could someone please help? (Log base A of B)(Log base B of A) = Log base C?

of C. This is a proof. Thanks in advance.

4 Answers

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  • Philo
    Lv 7
    1 decade ago
    Favorite Answer

    using change of base formula,

    (log[a] b) (log[b] a) =

    (log b)/(log a) • (log a)/(log b) = .............. and here log is to any base at all

    1 =

    log[c] c .......... where c is any base at all (greater than 1, of course)

  • JB
    Lv 7
    1 decade ago

    Suppose x = log [A] B , then

    A^x = B. Take log base B of both sides:

    x log[B] A = log[B] B = 1. Now replace x by what it equal (top line):

    (log [A] B)(log[B] A) = 1.

    So your question boils down to: 1 = log[C] (?). And the answer must be ? = C.

    Note: I put bases in brackets.

  • Anonymous
    1 decade ago

    Certainly.

    Recall that, by the Change of base formula:

    log_a(b) = log_c(b)/log_c(a) for any a, b, c in (1, infinity)

    LHS = [log_A(B)][log_B(A)]

    = [log_C(B)/log_C(A)][log_C(A)/log_C(B)] . . . . .Change-of-base

    = 1. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .Multiplication and Division cancel

    = log_C(C). . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .log_a(a) = 1 for all a ≠ 0 and a ≠ 1.

    = RHS

    I hope this helps!

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