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Is it possible that the 'virgin birth' was a case of undiagnosed parthenogenesis?
I admit that I am watching an old episode of House, but he just diagnosed a virgin birth and called it parthenogenesis and me being curious, I looked it up and it exists. That many years ago, no one would have known what that was.
**of course just now, before posting this, House admits that it wasn't true but still????**
Ok, watching House that late at night made me miss one glaring misconception I made, Jesus wasn't a girl. Sorry about that.
For anyone (120) who thinks I made up the word try this:
12 Answers
- MariaLv 61 decade agoFavorite Answer
There was a case of parthenogenesis as recently as 20 years ago in Spain. It's very rare, but does exist.
Yes, it would seem that Jesus would not have a Y chromosome, if that were the case, however, there is also a rare condition that exists where a fetus can absorb a twin in utero and find that only certain parts of that grown fetus have the twin's DNA.
So, for example, a woman applying for welfare had a blood test, as did her children. The blood test showed she was not their mother because her blood had different DNA than her ovaries. Her children were taken away until her third child was born, with a social worker present to prove the child came from her. She carried her twin's DNA in her ovaries, but her own DNA in her blood.
If both these conditions happened and the absorbed twin had been male, then parthenogenesis with a male child as a result is possible.
Also, it's possible for a woman to have a Y chromosome, as long as the crucial parts of the Y chromosome are not working. If that was also the case, yet a mutation 'activated' the inactive part of the Y chromosome, a male child through parthenogenesis would result.
Then again, it could have been a miracle brought about by God when Mary accepted His will to bless her.
- Anonymous1 decade ago
Firstly, despite the fact that House lied there is one glaring fault - parthenogenesis always results in a female offspring - directly because only female DNA is present. And Christ was male - xy - so NO
Source(s): www.factmonster.com/ce6/sci/A0837738.html - 1 decade ago
The virgin birth was not caused by parthenogenesis because Mary was a cheating whore. She had more rides than the town donkey.
- Michael KLv 71 decade ago
No, as parthenogenesis only would result in a female offspring if it ever was from humans.
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- Anonymous1 decade ago
No, it isn't. Parthenogenesis cannot result in the birth of a male.
- oldernwiserLv 71 decade ago
Children born via parthenogenesis MUST be female because there is no male DNA present. So my guess is no.
- Anonymous1 decade ago
Yes. It might have been. God used parthenogenesis with Mary, a virgen maiden in Israel.
In fact, all you have done is just inventing a new word.
- 1 decade ago
HAHA! I am watching the same episode as I type this. Great Minds think alike! Although I find house HILOUROUS I believe that God cause Mary to become pregnant, but in a way it could be parthenogensis I suppose.
Source(s): UPC since 2009 - Anonymous5 years ago
If by virgin birth you mean without a second source of DNA, then no, this does not happen in humans ever.
- 1 decade ago
Then Jesus would be a female. Parthogenesis would duplicate the mother's genome, and thus the baby would have to have two X chromosomes.