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Quotient and Product rule confirmation?

Considering that a function

f(x) = g(x)/h(x)

can be thought of as:

f(x) = g(x) * 1/h(x)

Is it possible to treat a quotient of functions as just a product of functions as shown, and just differentiate from there? I have tried this and it works, but i just wanted to be sure.

Also, if this is a viable option (because i always forget the quotient rule formula) will it still work in all cases, such as when there is a restricted domain or it is a hybrid function?

Thanks your your help in advance.

5 Answers

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  • ?
    Lv 7
    1 decade ago
    Favorite Answer

    It does indeed!

    The quotient rule says that f' = (hg' − gh')/h²

    Let k(x) = 1/h(x) = [h(x)]^(−1)

    By the product rule, f' = kg' + gk'

    By the chain rule, k' = (−1)h^(−2)h' = −h'/h², then

    f' = kg' + gk' = g'/h − gh'/h² = hg'/h² − gh'/h² = (hg' − gh')/h²,

    in agreement with the quotient rule.

  • jilek
    Lv 4
    5 years ago

    it is going to count cuz think of approximately what occurs if u opposite the order of this -3-3 u get 3-(-3) your order adjustments that could substitute it from a destructive to helpful. in the quotient rule it could cahnge plenty greater thinking the backside bein squared and what no longer

  • 1 decade ago

    The quotient rule is :

    f' = (hg' − gh')/h²

    Let k(x) = 1/h(x) = [h(x)]^(−1)

    And By the product rule, f' = kg' + gk'

    Also

    By the chain rule, k' = (−1)h^(−2)h' = −h'/h²,

    Then

    f' = kg' + gk' = g'/h − gh'/h² = hg'/h² − gh'/h² = (hg' − gh')/h²,

    Hence : Q . E . D.

  • 1 decade ago

    Yes. Isn't math lovely?

  • Raj K
    Lv 7
    1 decade ago

    Your line of thinking is correct.

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