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If I(n)=-n * I(n-1) deduce that I(n) = (-1)^n * n!?

where I(n) initially = 0∫1 (lnx)^n dx

2 Answers

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  • 1 decade ago
    Favorite Answer

    UPDATE:

    Hemant: To be honest, I don't see that you have added any content beyond what I had originally posted; which is below:

    ============================================

    ============================================

    Let's first look at the original problem:

    L(n) = ∫ (ln(x) )^n dx , [x = 0,1]

    Integrating by parts,

    L(n) = x*(ln(x))^n - ∫ x * (1/x)(n*(ln(x))^(n-1) dx , [x = 0, 1]

    ...... = x*(ln(x))^n - n * ∫(ln(x))^(n-1) dx , [x = 0, 1]

    ...... = (0 - 0) - n*L(n-1)

    because x dominate ln(x) when x=> 0.

    Therefore, as you stated:

    L(n) = - n * L(n-1)

    Before we can deduce what L(n) is, we have to have a starting point. In particular, does L(1) exist?

    L(1) = ∫ ln(x) dx , [x = 0,1]

    ...... = x*ln(x) - x , [x = 0, 1]

    ...... = 1*0 - 0 - 1 = -1

    So L(1) exists and = -1; and this matches the formula, because (-1)^1 * 1! = -1.

    Now it is straightforward:

    L(1) = -1

    L(2) = -2*L(1) = +2

    L(3) = -3*L(2) = -3*2

    L(4) = -4*L(3) = +4*3*2

    Obviously, it works. More formally, we would prove it by induction:

    If L(n) = (-1)^n * n! for n = m, and

    L(m+1) = -(m+1)*L(m), then

    L(m+1) = -(m+1)*(-1)^m * m!

    ........... = (-1)^(m+1) * (m+1)*(m!)

    ........... = (-1)^(m+1) * (m+1)!

    So if it works for m, it works for m+1.

    Since we know it works for m = 1, that implies that it works for all integers 1 and above.

    QED

  • Hemant
    Lv 7
    1 decade ago

    UPDATE :

    Nealjkin... frankly, i haven't read your solution.

    I had just cast a casual glance at your solution and

    those m and m+1 gave me the impression that you were

    using the method of mathematical induction. So I shot off

    my own solution.

    ...........................................................................................

    Let : I(n) = - n. I(n-1) ... (1)

    Then,

    I(n-1) = -(n-1). I(n-2)

    I(n-2) = -(n-2). I(n-3)

    ... ... ... ... ... ... ... ...

    ... ... ... ... ... ... ... ...

    I(3) = -3. I(2)

    I(2) =- -2. I(1)

    I(1) = -1. I(0) = - 0∫1 ( ln x )° dx = - 0∫1 (1)dx

    ....................= -[x] on [0,1]

    ....................= - [ 1 - 0 ]

    ....................= -1.

    Hence, combining all these equations backwards, i.e.,

    using I(1) in I(2), ... I(2) in I(3), ... , I(n-1) in I(n),

    I(n) = (-n)[-(n-1)].[-(n-2)].[-(n-3)]. ... (-3).(-2).(-1)

    ...... = [ (-1)(-1)(-1) ... n times ].[ 1.2.3. ... (n-1).n ]

    ...... = (-1)ⁿ. n! ................ Q.E.D.

    ...............................................................................................................................

    Happy To Help !

    ..........................................................................................................................................

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