Why didn't women in France win the right to vote before 1944?

Each country decided at different times.. I could ask why the USA was 18 years behind Australia , 27 years behind New Zealand, 39 years behind the Isle of Mann, 82 years behind Pitt Cairn Island

Well nowadays there is very little racism and sexism compared to 40 or 50 years ago, so I doubt that actually plays a very big part in presidential elections anymore, regardless of what people say. However, if you incorporate the racism and sexism parts as major parts of the election, then I believe that a (white) woman would be more likely to win before a black man. This is because blacks were still discriminated against long after they got the vote, and really didn't gain full equality in the U.S. until about 1970, whereas women have been more comparatively equal with men since say...1960?

From what I have read France was a male - dominated society and had laws clearly stating the wife had to obey. They had survey to discuss is the 'second class' were capable to voting in elections

after 1944 . Interesting why they were almost the last to be ALLOWED to vote

Glad was not born in those 'good old days'...wow

Women in france weren't given the right to vote thanks to thier dimwitted queen marie antionette. Hence there arose a general belief in the public that women weren't fit to cast vote. The queen was soo adamant or in a sense sadistical that when citizens told her that they had no bread to eat,She asked them to eat cake! And till women did begin a popular women centered movement did women get a right to vote. "The right to vote"-and the universality of it is something french movement did contribute to. As for as your question is considered ,I do have to say that it appears to be a bit ambiguous. French history and Nazi conquest and women isn't a much detailed topic.