Yahoo Answers is shutting down on May 4th, 2021 (Eastern Time) and beginning April 20th, 2021 (Eastern Time) the Yahoo Answers website will be in read-only mode. There will be no changes to other Yahoo properties or services, or your Yahoo account. You can find more information about the Yahoo Answers shutdown and how to download your data on this help page.

correct value of property includible in "gross estate" for estate tax purposes?

(My state didn't repeal estate tax for 2010.) The answer's probably obvious but I can't find it anywhere. If a decedent has land with FMV of $ 10 in 2010 and they paid $ 2 when they bought it in 1970, is the amount that's includible in their gross estate $ 10 or $ 8? It seems like $ 8 is the obvious answer, otherwise it's a double taxation in a way. I just can't find the answer spelled out anywhere. Many thanks in advance.

3 Answers

Relevance
  • Mathew
    Lv 7
    1 decade ago
    Favorite Answer

    To evaluate an estate normally the value is based on the FMV of each asset on the date of the decedents passing. In your example that would be $10. You seem to think that these things were intended to be logical and fair. That would be an incorrect assumption.

  • Anonymous
    1 decade ago

    The Gross Value is the FMV on the date of death or $10.

    The estate tax in your state is NOT an income tax (which is what capital gains are), so it's not double taxation. Double would be you inheriting the property, selling it for $10 and putting all $10 on *your* tax return. (Same for the estate.)

  • tro
    Lv 7
    1 decade ago

    the value of the assets at the time of death is what the estate is worth, that is one reason estate taxes are so cumbersome and take extraordinary time

    the value of the assets is the determining factor in the amount estate taxes the Fed and State would get and that would be very relevant

Still have questions? Get your answers by asking now.