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how would you prove ( sin^2(x) / cos^2(x) ) = 1 ?

how would you monopulate the left hand? only you can play with the left hand side.

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  • Anonymous
    1 decade ago
    Favorite Answer

    not prove , but solve for x

    tan^2 x = 1 ---> x = pi/4 , 3pi/4, 5pi/4 , 7pi/4

  • Anonymous
    1 decade ago

    I think there is a typo in your question, for ( sin^2(x) / cos^2(x) )= tan^2(x) and it can be anything.

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