If whole households were baptized in Acts 16:33 and 1 Cor 1:16, which verses exclude infants from "households"?

Infants were never excluded from baptism in Christianity until the doctrinal chaos of unauthorized manmade denominational religion began a few hundred years ago.

Everyone has to make sure on their own - the judge is Christ after all.

If you now were told that Baptism is a pact (contract) between the person being baptized and God - would you still think that an infant qualifies?

Do you - no matter who you are - have the right to make such a deal for another person?

If you check two European translations and Darby's - this is what is conveyed.

I Peter 3:21:

Darby's commentary:

3:21 demand (n-20) Or 'engagement,' or 'testimony.' The Greek word here translated 'demand' is a very difficult one, and has puzzled all critics and commentators. It means 'a question.' All the commentators speak of its use as a legal term with the sense of contract, or rather stipulations or obligations of a contract.

Bible text: using the word "pact" easily seen:

Danish: men en god Samvittigheds Pagt med Gud ved Jesu Christi Opstandelse;

Norwegian: . . .Samvittigheds Pagt med . . .

German: (alliance) (1) als der Bund eines guten Gewissens mit Gott

(2) sondern der Bund eines guten Gewissens mit Gott durch die Auferstehung Jesu Christi,

So, by your question does that mean that even unborn children in the womb are baptized through their mothers when these are baptized? How far do you want to take this non specific "household were baptized?"

What then is the use of confirmation at all? If your baptism is indeed valid, there is no reason to validate it a second time ! Is there now? Or, is confirmation an admission of invalidity !

You are holding on to customs by force and for no other reason than that these custom belong to so and so church, not to Biblical teaching and demand.

"Jesus answered, 'Verily, verily, I say unto thee, except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God'." - John 3:5

The word MAN excludes infants...

"Suffer little children, and forbid them not, to come unto me: for of such is the kingdom of heaven" -Matthew 19:14

"Verily I say unto you, 'Whosoever shall not receive the kingdom of God as a little child, he shall not enter therein'" - Mark 10:15

The kingdom of heaven belongs to children who cannot discern right from wrong.

You're just parsing words to say that the Bible doesn't exclude infants. That's a weak argument in and of itself, but with the evidence I just gave you, there's no doubt.

households did not include children being baptized

for a person to be saved they had to repent of sin and accept jesus as savior and choose to follow god

children do not have the mind to do that

They were baptized if they had reached the age of eight.

what is your obsession with infants? just curious because so far the questions i've caught you asking about all involve infants.