Why did the Virgin Mary get out of original sin?

It is very hard to explain insane ideas in a sane fashion, but I will try.

You are right about the immaculate conception idea.

It was St Anne (Hanna) that had the immaculate conception when she had St Mary.

This tradition didn't start until 400AD at least. possibly as late as the 1600s.

The Catholics condemn the idea that St Anne conceived through the holy spirit because that would make St Mary part of the trinity too, being as much God as they claim Jesus to be.

It would also open the problem of incest, with God impregnating his own daughter to get his son.

The Catholic Church decided (mid 1600s) to declare Anne's conception of Mary to not be stained with original sin (immaculate means no stain) but offer no explanation other than calling it a miracle.

(ie, just shut up and believe what we tell you to believe)

Why they got into all this foolishness over original sin is beyond my understanding, but there was the thought that God couldn't be born in a dirty vessel, so to speak.

Therefore Mary first had to be a virgin.

And according to some traditions remained a virgin even after giving birth. (weird enough) and by some insane extension of this reasoning it was decided that she had to be free of any sin at all.

I hope that helps a bit.

Could a child conceived in this way by an imperfect woman be perfect and free from sin in his physical organism? How do the laws of heredity work when there is a union of perfection with imperfection? Remember that holy spirit was employed in transferring the perfect life force of God’s Son and causing the conception. This canceled out any imperfection existing in Mary’s ovum, thereby producing a genetic pattern that was perfect from its start.

In any case, we can be certain that the operation of God’s holy spirit at that time guaranteed the success of God’s purpose. The angel Gabriel had explained to Mary: “Holy spirit will come upon you, and power of the Most High will overshadow you. For that reason also what is born will be called holy, God’s Son.” (Luke 1:35) God’s holy spirit formed, as it were, a protective wall so that no imperfection or hurtful force could blemish the developing embryo from conception on.

"Why did the Virgin Mary get out of original sin?"

Because a sinless vessel is required to bear God incarnate.

The immaculate conception has nothing to do with the birth of the blessed mother of God. It has everything to do with the birth of Jesus.

"Why could God just decide, yeah, well for you Mary there's no original sin, but then Jesus still had to go die?"

Because Jesus died so that all could redeemed from sin including the blessed mother of God who was the first to be redeemed.

"Why couldn't God just do that for everybody and skip the whole crucifixion business?"

Because the sin of man brought death into the world and to restore life a perfect sacrifice was needed to redeem mankind. To fulfill Scripture a continuous sacrifice is necessary which Christ provides as the perfect lamb of God.

God bless!

In Christ

Fr. Joseph

Christ’s death on the cross was an eternal event; as such, its graces could reach back in time, as well as forward. This means that the grace that Christ would win on Calvary could be applied to Mary in anticipation of Calvary. This was how she was saved from any stain of sin, both original and actual. Medieval theologians created the analogy of two people approaching a pit. If the first falls in and is rescued from the pit, and the second is prevented from falling into the pit, both are saved, and it even could be said that the one whose fall was prevented is saved far more completely than the one who was raised from the pit. See also Hail Mary, Conceived without Sin

She didn't.

The Bible itself says: “Well then, sin entered the world through one man [Adam], and through sin death, and thus death has spread through the whole human race because everyone has sinned.” (Rom. 5:12, JB; italics added.)

Does that include Mary? The Bible reports that in accord with the requirement of the Mosaic Law, 40 days after Jesus’ birth Mary offered at the temple in Jerusalem a sin offering for purification from uncleanness. She, too, had inherited sin and imperfection from Adam.—Luke 2:22-24; Lev. 12:1-8.

Pope John Paul II cast a different light on the matter. At the General Audience at the Vatican on June 25, 1997, he said: “The New Testament provides no information on the circumstances of Mary’s death. This silence leads one to suppose that it happened naturally, with no detail particularly worthy of mention. . . . The opinions that wish to exclude her from death by natural causes seem groundless.”

Pope John Paul’s statement opens a deep crack in the dogma of the Immaculate Conception. If Jesus’ mother was “preserved free from all stain of original sin,” how could Mary die from “natural causes,” which result from sin passed on by sinful Adam? (Romans 5:12) This theological dilemma is due to the Catholic Church’s distorted view of Jesus’ mother. Division and confusion have arisen within the Catholic Church over the matter.

While the Bible portrays Mary as being humble, faithful, and devout, it does not ascribe these qualities to an “immaculate conception.” (Luke 1:38; Acts 1:13, 14) The Bible simply says: “All have sinned and fall short of the glory of God.” (Romans 3:23) Yes, Mary inherited sin and imperfection as did the rest of humankind, and there is no evidence that she died from anything other than natural causes.—Compare 1 John 1:8-10.

The key to the Immaculate Conception is found in these two verses in Luke:

Luke 1:46-47 And Mary said, My soul doth magnify the Lord, And my spirit hath rejoiced in God my Saviour.

When Mary said these words, Jesus hadn't even been born yet -- much less died on the Cross for anyone's sins. God Himself was her Savior, and He did so in order that His Son wouldn't inherit a tainted sin nature from His human mother. You don't put a beautiful white lily in a chipped vase full of dirty water, so why would God want His son to be born of a sin-tainted human being?

The answer to your last question is that one exception doesn't disprove the rule. The first human beings deliberately chose to sin, and that sin nature has tainted us ever since. God is merciful, but He is also a God of justice. He couldn't just pretend that sin never happened because it obviously did. Human beings have tried to ditch responsibility for their actions since Adam blamed Eve and Eve blamed the serpent. . .but God knows the true state of our hearts.

The only way that He could be both just and merciful at the same time was to provide us a way out of the consequences of our sinfulness. And to do that, He had to send the only One Who could be both sinless God and sinless man -- our Savior.

In Judaism, if the mother is Jewish, then her children are considered to be Jewish. So Mary had to be set free of any taint of sin at the moment of her conception in order that her Son could be born as a spotless and pure man.

That was the only way that He could be the perfect sacrifice for our sins.

God has his reasons for doing what he wants. It is not for us to question his motives. Already in the beginning God had elected Mary to her unique vocation in the scheme of salvation. Before Mary was conceived in the womb of her mother, Anna, Mary was ontologically conceived and sanctified for the divine purpose. Mary was from the beginning endowed with grace, or in the more familiar translation, full of grace. To be filled with grace is to be in the opposite condition from that of original sin.

continuously use the Bible for the authority in certainty. The veneration of Mary relies on the coaching of intercession by using saints, concerning which there is not any longer something interior the Scriptures. First in 1854 grow to be “the stainless theory of the Virgin Mary” made a dogma, and that throughout the time of direct contradiction of the undeniable Scriptural coaching that each and each physique have sinned, that each and each physique are sinners, that none are righteous. (Rom. 3:10-12; 5:12) no longer something is asserted approximately Mary’s being an exception. Had she been sinless she could no longer have died a “organic” loss of life. Mary, Jesus' mom, grow to be an superb servant of God. She had a love for the scriptures. whilst the angel Gabriel introduced that she grow to be to offer beginning, she manifested marvel. Being a virgin, she had no longer had "intercourse with a guy." On studying that the beginning grow to be to be by using skill of holy spirit, she humbly usual the message, asserting: "seem! Jehovah's slave lady! could it take place with me in accordance on your announcement." (Luke a million:30-38) She valued the non secular privilege plenty that she grow to be prepared to bear any difficulty that her selection could entail. loads of ladies from the Bible have been blessed. She grow to be chosen by using God because of the fact of her PROVED faithfulness. for the duration of her finished existence she enjoyed God. God knew she could carry out her value faithfully. certainly, accepting the value replaced her entire existence as a girl. yet in basic terms one is splendid in holiness, is God & His Son. Others could properly be holy to a constrained degree, yet that would not recommend they could desire to be worshipped, does it? guy grow to be born into sin... up till Jesus grow to be born, on the grounds that Adam & Eve, noone have been in a perfect undertaking on earth.

original sin didn't happen when Eve took a bite of the apple,it happened when Adam did.Mans seed passes on OG sin,Jesus wasn't conceived with mans seed,it was the Holy Spirit,thus bypassing OG sin through Mary,no where in the bible does it say Mary was without sin,Its a Catholic doctrine that never had any scriptural foundation,like lots of denominational doctrine,its false.To say that Mary was sinless is to say that her mother and her mothers mother all the way back to Eve,was sinless as to not pass it through the blood,and if you look at Marys genealogy,you'll see its full of sinners from the old testament

There is NO Biblical reference to *original sin*, it is *SIN NATURE* the sin nature of Adam, which is the ability to sin...... *sigh*......

The *Immaculate conception* is ALL about Jesus...... Where do you and others get that about Mary being born with out sin ?

*Sin nature* is not a virus, you can not catch it, you are BORN with it..... and Mary was born with it..... Jesus was NOT........

Jesus had to pay for our sins..... Look into Jewish tradition for yourself about the *kinsmen* paying their debts...... Jesus is the ONLY human who is a *kinsmen* to all others, past, present and future.... In* Jewish tradition debts could ONLY be paid by a kinsmen who was willing and able.....

Why God chose the way it was to be, I nor anyone has an idea.... He spoke it, and it was so..... God could not change in mid-stride....... *shrug*......