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Who can answer my question about Mary "Queen of Heaven?"?
Where does it say (if, indeed, it does say it) in the bible (King James) that Mary is without sin? If it does not say this, does anyone know the theological line of reasoning that led believers/theologians to this conclusion? I apologize for my ignorance, I am a non-believer and have not read the bible in over a year.
I understand the Immaculate Conception of Mary is a Catholic doctrine, but that isn't exactly what I was referring to. Where does the belief that she never, throughout the course of her entire life, sinned, come from?
6 Answers
- TruthRevealedLv 510 years agoFavorite Answer
Protestants often ask for literal statements when the fact is that isn't how the Bible works. Those who are able to make more intellectual thematic connections can clearly see the Immaculate Conception in the Bible.
Luke 1:39 / 2 Sam. 6:2 - Luke's conspicuous comparison's between Mary and the Ark described by Samuel underscores the reality of Mary as the undefiled and immaculate Ark of the New Covenant. In these verses, Mary (the Ark) arose and went / David arose and went to the Ark. There is a clear parallel between the Ark of the Old and the Ark of the New Covenant.
Luke 1:41 / 2 Sam. 6:16 - John the Baptist / King David leap for joy before Mary / Ark.
Luke 1:43 / 2 Sam. 6:9 - How can the Mother / Ark of the Lord come to me? It is a holy privilege.
Luke 1:56 / 2 Sam. 6:11 and 1 Chron. 13:14 - Mary / the Ark remained in the house for about three months.
The early Church Father Hippolytus understood this:
“At that time, the Savior coming from the Virgin, the Ark, brought forth His own Body into the world from that Ark, which was gilded with pure gold within by the Word, and without by the Holy Ghost;” Hippolytus, In Dan. 6, Patr. Gr. (c. A.D. 170-236)
"She was the ark formed of incorruptible wood. For by this is signified that His tabernacle was exempt from putridity and corruption." Hippolytus, Orations Inillud, Dominus pascit me (ante A.D. 235).
Edit:
Just as the Ark of the Covenant (the vessel which carried God's very presence) was so pure that when Uzzah touched it he was slain, Mary had to be without sin in order to be a pure vessel for Jesus (God) since God could not possibly touch sin.
Mary's soul "magnified the Lord." Only a pure soul could possibly magnify God. Magnifying a sinful soul would only increase the abundance of sin.
Mary was "full of grace." The word meaning "full" in Greek gave the understanding that there was no room for anything other than grace in her.
Notice Mary calls God her Savior BEFORE Jesus had died to redeem sin. That is because God saved Mary from the stain of sin BEFORE she was born so that she could be the perfect vessel for God in human form.
Mary said that all generations would call her 'blessed.' When do Protestants fulfill this verse? Blessed among women does in fact imply blessed ABOVE all other women because Elizabeth was drawing a distinction between common women and Mary. Mary is blessed amongst a pool of countless women who were not blessed with such a distinction to be the Mother of the Lord.
Finally, Protestants often claim that things not mentioned in the Bible are 'unbiblical.' This implies that if something is mentioned in the Bible, it is wrong. This of course isn't true. TVs are 'unbiblical' but does that stop them from being plastered all over the walls of megachurches.
- ?Lv 510 years ago
No, it doesn't say anywhere in the Bible that Mary is the "Queen of Heaven". In fact the Bible says nothing at all about Mary worship. After the Lord Jesus returned to Heaven you can read where she takes her place among the ordinary believers. When the angel told Mary she was going to be the mother of Jesus he addressed her as "Hail thou blessed among women" - "among" women, not "above" women. Mary spoke of God her "Saviour" - she was a sinner just like the rest of us needing redemption.
Where this teaching came from - the RC church has always considered tradition on equal footing with the Bible. There are many other doctrines in the Catholic church that don't have their basis in the Bible.
- PeterLv 610 years ago
THER IS NO RELATION NOR RATIONALE WITH THESE TWO!!
Mary Mother of Jesus Christ and mary Magdelaine were related.
Thee Queen of Heaven is also an old testament diety , false god and has nothing at all to do with Mary, Mary Magdelene nor Jesus Christ.
The bible never stated that Mary was without sin. She is known as the Blessed Virgin . She was visited by the angel Gabriel.
Source(s): Jeremiah 44:17,18 states the offeriongs made to the queen of heaven a paegan goddess. - 10 years ago
It does not state any where in the Bible that Mary was without sin, the only person who is without sin is Jesus Christ who was the only person conceived by a virgin birth meaning with no sexual intercourse but by faith in God.
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- Anonymous10 years ago
Mary is not queen of heaven. The Bible states that God has found favor with Mary. She was chosen
Luke 1:30 And the angel said unto her, Fear not, Mary: for thou hast found favour with God.
That means that she had a great faith in God. Mary was not without sin. She was a woman of great faith in God..
- FROG ELv 710 years ago
The only person born without sin was Jesus Christ......the teaching of the Immaculate Conception is not biblical.