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"Has" or "have" in this sentence? Also, what does "be told to" mean?
1st question:
"Is it painful to learn that it’s me that HAVE all the control?" or "Is it painful to learn that it’s me that HAS all the control?" ???
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2nd question:
"-When is the last time a royalty cried in public?" "-Whenever they were told to, I suppose."
>>>>What does "be told to" mean?
10 Answers
- Anonymous10 years agoFavorite Answer
1 has Strictly speaking, a purist in English would write: "Is it painful to learn that I am the person who has full control?" Don't forget the question mark, since your sentence asks a question. As an excercise that sentence is badly written "....have all the control" is not a natural way for British people to speak.
2 'To be told to' is 'to be advised to', 'to be ordered to', 'to be compelled to'.
Actually that sentence should read: "When was the last time that a member of royalty cried in public?" Whoever wrote the version you have quoted does not know English at all well. If he is your teacher then you should find a teacher who is a native English speaker.
- Anonymous10 years ago
1: has
2: the grammar is off in the question, it should be "when is the last time a royal person cried in public?" and there is no "be" in the answer, but basically it is saying "whenever they were told to [cry], I suppose"
- 10 years ago
1. In fact, neither is correct, since "to be" (it's) is a linking verb and therefore takes a subject complement (I). "I" goes with "have" not "has"
Is it painful to learn that it’s I that HAVE all the control?
But if you're going with "me", use "has". I'm not sure if it seems correct because the subject seems to be "that" or because another option would be "I am the one that has" or what.
2. be commanded to
- Anonymous10 years ago
You can say either, "is it painful to learn that I have all the control" or is it painful to learn that it's me that has all the control."
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- Baby KangarooLv 510 years ago
1. Is it painful to learn that it's me that HAS all the control?
- Me is a singular pronoun, and it agrees with has which is a singular verb.
2. "be told to" means to be ordered to or command to.
The kids were told to shut up. (The kids were ordered to shut up.)
- Anonymous10 years ago
There is no such thing as 'a royalty' as 'royalty' is a status not a noun. It should read 'a member of the royal family'.
- ?Lv 410 years ago
Has. Have is for plurals, or when using ''I'' for example we HAVE all the control.
To be told to, means when someone asked them to do this. Requested them to do it, but in a commanding way.
- Italie2001Lv 510 years ago
1 - It's me that HAS all the control. 'Has' is singular, 'have' would be for plural
2 - "to be told to" is when someone tells you to do something e.g if someone says to the royals "you must cry" then they have been told to cry.
- shizzleLv 710 years ago
1. HAS
2. there is no "be" in the sentence. "whenever they were told to" means whenever someone said to them "cry in public now".
- YorrikLv 710 years ago
Has, means someone else has it.
Have, means I have it or they have it.
Had, means I no longer have it or they no longer have it, or he/she no longer has it.
something like that.
London UK