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Star asked in Science & MathematicsPhysics · 9 years ago

Do heavier objects have a higher terminal velocity?

So if you have one light object and heavy object eventually both would reach terminal velocity. Would the heavier object have a higher terminal velocity? Would the lighter object reach terminal velocity faster?

Update:

i am not talking about any specific objects. Just comparing heavy and light objects.

Update 2:

Sorry if my question is not clear. Imagine both objects have the same characteristics, same surface area, same everything except one just has more mass and as a result more weight.

7 Answers

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  • 9 years ago
    Favorite Answer

    All freely falling objects will have the speed irrespective of the mass (weight) of the body (neglecting friction).

    Acceleration due to gravity is the same for heavier and lighter object.

    =================================

    If there is friction, the object will attain a terminal velocity, at the time the weight equals the frictional force in magnitude.

    Heavier the object, higher must be the frictional force to attain the terminal velocity.

    Higher frictional force is attained only with high velocity of the object, if the surface area is the same.

    Thus for heavier object the terminal velocity is high.

    Take a square card board and drop it keeping it in a horizontal position. It will take a long time to reach the ground.

    (Assume no wind)

    Repeat the same now with a heavy steel ball placed over the paper.

    It will not attain the terminal velocity, even after attaining a high speed.

    =====================================

  • 9 years ago

    Terminal velocity occurs because of the friction of the air it's falling through. If you only consider heavy and light object in a vacuum environment in a homogeneous gravitational field (enough close to the ground that general relativity effects don't occur) then 1st: there is no terminal velocity and 2nd: they would accelerate at the same rate... but in any ways, you're question should be clearer

    Edit: Surface area is not really important in fluid dynamics (since it's not fluid statics)

    Edit2: If both objects have the same characteristics but one weights more, you know that they would have the same acceleration (if the gravitational field is homogeneous as said) that means that the heavier object would have a greater gravitational force acting on him (F=ma) that means that he will need a greater drag force to compensate for the gravitational pull. That means that he will reach it's terminal velocity at a faster speed than the lighter object (The air friction is proportional to the speed squared) and later than it.

  • Kyp
    Lv 5
    9 years ago

    Short answer: not necessarily.

    Long answer: The mass of the falling object matters less than the geometry of the falling object. An object with a larger surface area will reach terminal velocity faster than an object with a smaller surface area.

  • 9 years ago

    Your are describing two objects with identical dimensions and different densities acting under the influence of gravity as modified by friction. The object with greater density will possess greater inertia (a feather and a bowling ball accelerate at the same rate under the influence of gravity in a vacuum).

    The effect of density on air resistance is a different matter.

    Two identically sized rigid boxes will not fall at the same rate, or reach the same terminal velocity if one is filled with feathers, and the other with bowling balls.

    Air is a fluid. Air resistance is non-linear. Consider a solid bowling ball and one which is hollowed out.

    If placed on the surface of a liquid (fluid) buoyancy (relative density) might prevent the hollow ball from accelerating under the influence of gravity at all, while the solid ball sinks. Air resistance is not as simple as friction.

    Sorry, I am mistaken. ( Sincere apology to Sir Isaac Newton as well)

    Air resistance is just friction. Assuming your hypothetical objects are heavier than air, they both fall at the same rate if friction is not considered.

    At issue are two objects with identical aerodynamics and differing masses.

    -to be continued

    Speaking empirically, and given identical aerodynamics, terminal velocity will be a direct function

    of mass. (higher mass = Higher terminal velocity)

    Time and distance to terminal velocity also vary directly with mass.

    The lighter object reaches terminal velocity sooner.

    (Source: Sears & Zemansky, High School Physics)

    -to be continued

    Speaking analytically, please refer to:

    physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=40875

    Thanks for an interesting question.

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  • 9 years ago

    not necessarily...the terminal velocity of an object depends on both mass and surface area, so without specifying surface area, there is no general conclusion that can be drawn

  • 9 years ago

    There is not enough information unless you also mention something about the geometry of these objects.

  • Anonymous
    9 years ago

    ALL other factors being equal such as density, drag coefficient, surface area, etc.,

    1. yes.

    2. no.

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