What Did Jesus mean when he said this?

Why is it that the older the religion, the less rights and privileges women have. A lot of religions like Islam, early Christianity etc see and treat women like a second class gender. It's only relatively recently women have been able to vote, hold senior rank in a church and become senior executives and politicians. Etc.

I have read the meaning of this Statement from Jesus, but it was a long time ago. The Spirit/Holy Spirit was considered male and so was not thought that a male spirit would enter a woman. So hence the reason why some people thought that women didn't have souls. But Jesus said, he would man her a man so that she could recieve the Spirit.

But is is of course all rubbish. God, a Male Spirit, does enter and live with women, as He does with men. Woman and men both have souls, as do all living things.

To start with, it's believed that this final saying of Thomas was a later addition -- because it sounds too similar to the 2nd-century Gospel of Mary Magdalene, and because it seems entirely out of place: the way saying 113 matches so neatly with saying 3, and simply the context of 113, suggests that 113 ended the book.

In Gnostic thinking -- never forget that this is a Gnostic book -- "woman" probably represents "passions" and "man" probably represents "reason", symbols borrowed from Greek philosophy of the day. Passions are of the flesh; reason is of the mind. The flesh is not worthy of eternal life; the mind is. Convert passions into reason: you have turned from the weakness of the flesh and entered the purity of the mind. (As I said: it's Gnostic. Not Christian.)

Note that this sharply contradicts saying 22, which teaches unification of opposites, specifically male and female, and not conversion of one into the other.

I don't believe thats from the bible, but if it was the men were in charge of working hard for the good of their families and women were considered weak at the time so i would assume that if a woman became dilgent they would enter heaven.

Just speculating on a quote that i dont even think would be from the bible.

There are many documents and stories that the Council of Nicea did not allow ro be part of "god's word" in the bible. That's probably one of the many ridiculous and far-fetched things they threw out, along with the version of stories that confirmed Mary wasn't a virgin, and so on.

If you want a biblical answer, ask a biblical question.

This passage was written by "Simple" Simon Peter; he was an outcast due to his limited brain function and was called "mush-head" by the other disciples. It seems you have stumbled upon one of his lost scrolls of rant; typically his writings were used for toilet paper but you should take this parchment to the nearest Pawn Shop and collect your fortune.

There is a reason why the gospel of thomas is not canonized.

If you want to know what this sexist dribble means, ask a gnostic.

Thomas 114?? Not in a real Bible.

This passage, wherever it comes from, cannot be true. Jesus considered women at par with men in all his dealings. he did not differentiate them on the basis of gender. So, this passage cannot be an authentic one.

maybe this is from one of the bibles that were mistranslated...

Islam is the true religion, Save yourself from a long time in hell (not an eternity if you believe in god, Christians, jews and wrongful muslims will all end up in heaven ultimately after their sentence in hell).