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? asked in Politics & GovernmentPolitics · 9 years ago

What is the difference between "Make no law" and "Shall not be infringed"?

Bill of Rights

First Amendment

Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; or abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press; or the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the Government for a redress of grievances.

Second Amendment

A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed.

6 Answers

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  • Anonymous
    9 years ago
    Favorite Answer

    Both mean NO.

    And both have been turned to yes, and have been infringed on.

    But We vote in them idiots, what to do.

  • 9 years ago

    It is a matter of legal wording. Make no law specifically states that no law may be enacted that deals with a matter. Infringed is a bit more in the grey area, allowing for some leeway on the control of something

  • ?
    Lv 7
    9 years ago

    Exactly ten letters or characters. Those colonials sure knew how to turn a phrase into confusion for us today. Why couldn't they just repeat the same phrase in each amendment and avoid your confusion.

  • Anonymous
    9 years ago

    The second amendment gives people the right to own and use muskets, swords, and knives, the weapons that existed when the founding fathers wrote and voted in support of that amendment.

    If conservatives insist on the original intent of the founding fathers then they cannot support modern weapons as being allowed by the second amendment as the founding fathers had no idea about rifles, scopes, semi-automatic weapons and such.

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  • 9 years ago

    shall make no law means they want govt totally out of it

    the right to bear arms is a right the document is granting, and its saying that right can't be chipped away

  • Anonymous
    9 years ago

    with the law to manage the country.

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