At what level of taxation does taxation becomes no longer theft?

Question

I think we would all agree that if someone was taxed at 100% it would be an act of theft. But where does the line get drawn? At what people does theft no longer becomes theft?

Isn't the only logical answer to this is that theft no longer occurs once the act of thievery ceases? As in, taxation at 1% is theft in the same way that taxes at 100% is theft.

George B · Accepted Answer

Zero!  If it isn't voluntary then it is taken either by force, or threat of force.

? · Answer

Taxation isn't theft ever Theft involves both an unwilling and unknowing aspect.

Taxation must be judged on how burdensom it is to the payer. An easy bar to set would be that a Tax must not be so onerous that the payer can no longer fulfill the obligations they have to pay for the food, shelter and welfare of themselves or their family. Those who can afford Luxuries must reasonable be expected to pay not only more, but a larger percentage of what they recieve, since what they recieve is already so much more than everyone else.

Taxation becomes "theft" when there stops being incentive to continue earning more money. If making more money doesn't actually net you more money, then taxation is too much.

Anonymous · Answer

It's not the %, it's what the taxation is for. Taxing someone to redistribute their wealth is theft. Taxing for public purpose like police, fire, roads, national defense and court rooms is legitimate.

Joel · Answer

You mean rich republicans pay 1% and hard working middle class pay 100%all (after you factor in the alcohol and tobacco taxes they have to pay )the to be able to cope with the fact that their mortgage is twice what their little shack is worth?

Anonymous · Answer

The problem is that the wealthy don't pay their fair share and everyone else has to work for a living.

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At what level of taxation does taxation becomes no longer theft?

5 Answers