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Is F(x,t) = f(x-ct) , where f is any function with at least 2 derivatives,?

a solution to the partial differential equation:

c^2 * d^2 u / dx^2 - d^2 u / dt^2 = 0.

Justify your answer. You will need to use chain rule.

Thanks!

1 Answer

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  • 9 years ago
    Favorite Answer

    Let

    z = x - c∙t

    Then

    u = F(x,t) = f(z)

    =>

    ∂u/dx = (∂u/∂z)∙(∂z/dx) = (df/dz)∙(∂z/dx) = (df/dz)∙1

    Note that df/dz is not a partial differential because f is function of z alone)

    ∂²u/∂x² = ∂( df/dz ) )//∂z)∙(∂z/dx) = (d²f/dz²)∙1 = (d²f/dz²)

    and

    ∂u/dt = (∂u/∂z)∙(∂z/dt) = (df/dz)∙(∂z/dx) = (df/dz)∙c

    ∂²u/∂t² = ∂( c∙(df/dz) ) )//∂z)∙(∂z/dx) = c∙(d²f/dz²)∙c = c²∙(d²f/dz²)

    Hence,

    c²∙(∂²u/∂x²) - (∂²u/∂t²)

    = c²∙(d²f/∂z²) - c²∙(d²f/dz²)

    = 0

    q.e.d.

    That means f(x - c∙t) is a solution to this partial differential equation.

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