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How does the Ouidepus complex explain gay people?

Only asking this because someone had mentioned Freud's theory. If women tend to go with men who resemble thier fathers, then how come some women just prefer women

And how come some men prefer men. Where does modern psychology point this out?

Update:

I am lesbian! I don't think it is an abberation. It is just how I was born! Yeah, some pshycologists are very stupid!

4 Answers

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  • Anonymous
    9 years ago
    Favorite Answer

    There is a part of your brain that makes you react to people's mating calls; pheromones, proportions...

    This part has been found to 1) have a cell density more like that of self proclaimed heterosexual females in self proclaimed homosexual male samples and 2) been shown to provide activation in homosexual male participants to male mating stimuli.

    What that means is the part of your brain that makes you attracted to people is set up to react to men in gay men's brains and react to women in gay women's brains. It's not as cut and dry as I'm making it but in short you have a switch. Gay men got the "I like men" model of the dorsal anterior side of the cingulate cortex.

    While Freud said religion actually is an urge to renter the mother, to be "born again" (he cut that out ofter Erickson took it to a new level and they stopped working together). He then kinda settled it into attraction on and affection on the ID principle. That is to say it's your parent of the opposite sex that wants to have sex with you, or better yet your dad is hard wired in his brain to provide for and protect his wife. And he does the same for his daughter. So you get arousal cues, from him, petting, cuddling, and now your first experience with arousal is with your dad when you are a little girl. It's the same way fetishes and phobias work. A first, intense exposure results in lifelong phosphorylation to the given cues. i.e. conditioned or trained like a dog to be loved by German men in their 40s with red beards. or whatever it may be.

    As far as homosexuality goes, Freud didn't know about the neurobiology of his theory. He had the right ideas but he couldn't back it up. With the Dutch work on the cingulate we don't have any 100% agreement on causes but it's shifting towards teratogenic causes. There is a whole spectrum of genetic sexual disorders including an XXX genetic makeup! Fully normal women with male chromosomes, etc. Freud is kinda old hat, like saying we need to bleed people to get the devil out. It can be applied but not really relevant. As for modern psychology, there is some good hard data coming out but it's not all there yet. We're not in retrospect to be able to say "oh yea, how did I miss that."

    Source(s): Bachelor of psychology,
  • Anonymous
    9 years ago

    You're thinking of the Electra complex by Freud which would not apply to Lesbian/gay women since they have no sexual attraction at all.

    Freud claimed that everyone is somehow born bisexual or has the capability or being bisexual; but there was a Lesbian case study of his named Dora who he said had hysteria which she may have had since apparently her troubles started when her father died.

  • 9 years ago

    It doesn't. Nor does it explain why you apparently believe the long-disproven theories of Sigmund Fraud.

    Since sexuality is not a psychopathology, you should not be using psychobabble to attempt to explain it.

  • 9 years ago

    it explains the phenomenon:

    of blind horses !

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