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exponential regression- why cant y be zero?
in the table used to make the equation, why cant one of the y-values be zero?
1 Answer
- ?Lv 68 years agoFavorite Answer
Because y(x) = a*b^x can never be zero (unless it is identically zero in the case a=0) and exponential regression assumes y(x) can be modelled by that function.
If you see finite values for x such that y(x) = 0, then modelling y(x) with an exponential function doesn't make any sense... I mean, you can always do it in the sense nothing is physically stopping you, but you'll just get a crappy approximation for y(x) in doing so.
Hope that helps and have fun mathing :D
