What does Luke 17:34-37 in the 1611 King James Version mean to you?

It is talking about homosexuals. It is talking about lusting, most think that the sin of lusting covers only sex they are wrong dead wrong. The sin of lusting is about making a promise or a choice to be satisfied with one person or thing and than wanting another person or thing, once you have chosen you can not than chose another to replace that which you chose first. It is even more of a sin if you swear an oath or vow to do something and than fail to do it.

In the case of homosexuals, it is not sinful to love someone, anyone but it is sinful to tell that person, that you love them and than lust for another.

The sin of fornication is not what people think it is, God's definition of fornication has nothing to do with sex, fornication is the act of worshiping any God other than the God of Jesus. Many think the God of Moses is the same God of Jesus they are not, when you worship the God that gave Moses the 10 commandments, or a church in place of God the Father you are committing fornication and adultery, by lusting.

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Well...to be picky, that isn't the 1611 KJV. That's the Oxford Revision / Standard Text of 1769 or something very near to that.

The 1611:

http://sceti.library.upenn.edu/sceti/printedbooksN...

1) Do you believe Jesus is talking about homosexuality in the above verses?

Of course not. Heterosexual men sharing a bed - to serve the need of sleep, not sexually - was quite common even in our culture less than 100 yeas ago (black and white comedy movies often treat this once-common situation). It was even more common in first century Judaea - when people were, quite frankly, on average much poorer than people of the early 20th century, much less apt to be able to afford a separate bed (let alone a separate room!)

2) If not why are there 2 men and one bed

Answered above.

3) why are there 2 women grinding together in a field

That was the place that the grinding of grain was done in first century Judaea. More "urban" areas had grist mills available - but even those were only used by those who could afford the convenience of having their grain ground for them.

4) and what are the 2 men in the field doing?

The grinding of grain is *still* "women's work" in many third-world countries (including among some of the poorest farmers in the Middle East, who *still* use an all-stone one-person grinding setup) - as it was in the culture of first century Judaea. The men were doing men's work - or, alternately, enjoying the fruits of the harvest that the women were processing.

5) Was Jesus Taken or Left?

Neither. The passage describes an event that has not yet occurred. Jesus ascended and returned to Heaven.

- Jim, http://www.bible-reviews.com/

No

Jesus is talking about this:

Mar 13:27 And then shall he send his angels, and shall gather together his elect from the four winds, from the uttermost part of the earth to the uttermost part of heaven.

The righteous will be taken and the unrighteous will be left behind to perish

Since verses 35 and 36 obviously do not refer to any kind of sin, there is no reason to assume that verse 34 does.

Compare that with Proverbs 10:30. As for the righteous one, to time indefinite he will not be caused to stagger; but as for the wicked ones, they will not keep residing on the earth.

It could be talking about the separation of the righteous and wicked.

LOL

35 Two women shall be grinding together

No. The only time that Jesus ever talks about homosexuality is to say that homosexuals go to the lake of fire forever.

Whatb does it mean to me?

It means I would look up the sripture in other translations, apart from the KJV.

I thought Luke was warm

It means **** all to me.